Why did Jesus have to die

Originally posted by stellspalfie
is your explanation of "gods day" universally accepted within christianity? or a part of your particular church's beliefs?

just to get this straight, everybody that has ever lived is resurrected to be judged and then the "righteous" will get into the new jerusalem. is this right?

what happens to the rest, do they die again? do we know what kind of numbers get in?

A brief explination with scriptures you can look up if you have a bible:

This day is detailed in the Scriptures as a time of battle, a great and fear-inspiring day of darkness and burning anger, a day of fury, distress, anguish, desolation, and alarm. “What, then, will the day of Jehovah mean to you people?” God asked wayward Israel by the mouth of his prophet Amos. This: “It will be darkness, and no light, just as when a man flees because of the lion, and the bear actually meets him; and as when he went into the house and supported his hand against the wall, and the serpent bit him.” (Am 5:18-20) Isaiah was told: “Look! The day of Jehovah itself is coming, cruel both with fury and with burning anger.” (Isa 13:9) “That day is a day of fury, a day of distress and of anguish, a day of storm and of desolation, a day of darkness and of gloominess, a day of clouds and of thick gloom.” (Zep 1:15) During such a time of trouble, one’s money is absolutely worthless. “Into the streets they will throw their very silver . . . Neither their silver nor their gold will be able to deliver them in the day of Jehovah’s fury.”—Eze 7:19; Zep 1:18.
Later, through the prophet Malachi, another “great and fear-inspiring day of Jehovah” was foretold, and it was said that it would be preceded by the coming of “Elijah the prophet.” (Mal 4:5, 6) The original Elijah had lived some 500 years before that prophecy was uttered, but in the first century C.E. Jesus indicated that John the Baptizer was the foretold counterpart of Elijah. (Mt 11:12-14; Mr 9:11-13) So at that time a “day of Jehovah” was near at hand.
At Pentecost of 33 C.E., Peter explained that what was occurring was the fulfillment of Joel’s prophecy (Joe 2:28-32) concerning the outpouring of God’s spirit and that this too was due to happen before “the great and illustrious day of Jehovah.” (Ac 2:16-21) That “day of Jehovah” came in 70 C.E., when, in fulfillment of his Word, Jehovah caused the armies of Rome to execute divine judgment upon the nation that had rejected the Son of God and defiantly shouted: “We have no king but Caesar.”—Joh 19:15; Da 9:24-27.

These were a minor fulfillments of "God's Day", but the major one is described here that applies to all of us:

However, the Scriptures point forward to yet another “day of Jehovah.” After the restoration of the Jews to Jerusalem following the Babylonian exile, Jehovah caused his prophet Zechariah (14:1-3) to foretell “a day . . . belonging to Jehovah” when he would gather not merely one nation but “all the nations against Jerusalem,” at the climax of which day “Jehovah will certainly go forth and war against those nations,” bringing them to their end. The apostle Paul, under inspiration, associated the coming “day of Jehovah” with the presence of Christ. (2Th 2:1, 2) And Peter spoke of it in connection with the establishment of ‘new heavens and a new earth in which righteousness is to dwell.’—2Pe 3:10-13.

And no I don't believe I said ones would be resurrected to be judged according to their past life's sins. If you read back I quoted the scripture that says: "The wages of sin is death." When one dies and returns to the grave, all their former sins have been forgiven. There is nothing any human can do to repay for their sins more then death. So why would God still hold those sins against us?

I'll sart another post here for your other questions....