Originally posted by KneverKnightBut if you take the view torture and violation of the Geneva convertion in Abu Ghraib by Sadddamin 1991 is worth hundreds of millions in compensation for Americans, why shouldn't Iraqis have the same entitlement for 2004 abuses by US troops?
Is this story true? If so, what do you think of it? (Involves US POWs)
http://story.news.yahoo.com/news?tmpl=story&u=/latimests/whitehouseturnstablesonformeramericanpows
I can see why the US governmnet opposes it.?
Just goes to prove that Mr Moore was spot on in F911 when he asserted that the Bush regime was simply using and abusing working class kids in the army, to line his and his cronies (haliburton's) pockets.
But sheesh, denying the torture victims within its own army from compensation from the enemy; That's low man!
At first, it seems to pose an ironic twist or two. Subjecting the situation to the hammer and anvil of time however, soon brings it into focus.
The "government" that did the torture is no more. Refile your grievences in Syria where Saddams henchmen are holed up with his money. Collect it from him.
This is essentially the same argument as for reparations for slavery. Ok. Great idea. Anyone who has ever owned a slave is guilty and should pay. Those who have not are exempt from the charge of being a slave master.
This silly old binary universe that we live in demands we pay attention to times passage and what happens when it does.
"Oops! Things change. What was, is no more."
Originally posted by StarValleyWyYa, that's cute.
At first, it seems to pose an ironic twist or two. Subjecting the situation to the hammer and anvil of time however, soon brings it into focus.
The "government" that did the torture is no more. Refile your grievences in Syria where Saddams henchmen are holed up with his money. Collect it from him.
This is essentially the same argument as for rep ...[text shortened]... mes passage and what happens when it does.
"Oops! Things change. What was, is no more."