Originally posted by Wajoma
It is the only possible definition.
We've been over it a hundred times here at RHP but I don't mind doing it again because it's easy and I'm lazy.
Health care can never be a defined a right (as one example of a so called positive right, or is it negative, or then again maybe a neutral right)
I invite you to offer a definition of the "health care ri ...[text shortened]... , as mentiones in my previous post, it is 'impossible' to define a right in such a way.
As I said, my definition of a right is, anything that is constitutionally or legally guaranteed. There are literally thousands of possible rights that could be so guaranteed, but until they are so guaranteed, they are not rights. Once they are so guaranteed, they become rights.
Here's one possible definition of the right to health care. Everyone gets it, whenever they are ill, for whatever reason. The morally acceptable and indeed the practically necessary level of taxation is whatever is sufficient to guarantee this right to all.
Here's another possible definition. Life-threatening conditions only are covered by the right to health care. It is expected that citizens provide for the cure or treatment of less severe conditions from their own pockets. The acceptable tax pressure is the smaller one needed to guarantee this right to those who need it.
Here's another possible definition. Those who have enough money to cover, in full or in part, the costs of their own treatment, do so. Those who don't, receive government subsidy from tax revenue - which again would be somewhat smaller.
Here's a fourth possibility. Health care is available for free to those who suffer illness through no fault of their own. Those who have behaved "recklessly" - to use your word - have to pay. Again, tax pressure would then be somewhat smaller.
My point is that none of these definitions are absolute, but all of them are plausible and defineable, and all of them can be codified in law. If there's ambiguity, then one needs further clarification; ie, if in a society governed according to my second definition the question should arise as to what degree of illness constitutes "life-threatening", then a new provision is introduced to clarify the matter. Once it's codified, it becomes a right.
In other words, all possible rights are definable, if one works hard enough to define them, and the mere clarity and elegance of the libertarian definition of rights does not suffice to prove that it's either the only possible definition, or the most desireable. Realistically, all rights exist only in so far as they are enforceable, and the enforcer is always the state, since only the state can be sure of having the power to defend the individual against his fellow citizens. So if you happen to live in a country which strongly respects the individual citizen's right to own property, you are as much in debt to the state as if you live in a country which guarantees you the right to health care and education.
Incidentally, I find it distasteful that your defence of libertarian values in conducted by emotively evoking to the injustice of directing healthcare to "another who has been reckless with their own health". You can't possibly believe that the only people who fall ill are people who have brought it upon themselves. If we rephrase the relevant sentence so that it reads "someone's ability to care for themselves is to be limited so as to direct health care to another who, through no fault of his or her own, has fallen ill", then we might be approaching the reality of the situation.