Originally posted by KazetNagorra
If you stop paying taxes, but use public goods nonetheless, then it is indeed a form of theft called tax fraud.
If you stop paying taxes and not use any public goods whatsoever, i.e. live as a hermit, that is your call.
Well, I can see the argument that if X gives me some set of benefits then I should be prepared to pay for them.
However, these benefits are being imposed on me, via a scheme I might not approve of, and a cost is being extracted from me, via a scheme I might not approve of.
It's not as if the benefits are being offered, and I choose to pay for them or not. Rather, I must pay for them, and perhaps must benefit from them, or face penalties.
If I were to give you something and make it difficult for you not to use it, and then take some of your money by force to pay for it, would the latter operation no longer be theft?
(Furthermore, if I said, "If you don't like this arrangement, then get lost!" would that be proper of me?)
Suppose I didn't use public goods--or minimized my use of them as much as possible--but stayed in society and earned a living by providing useful goods and services to others, to the extent that I was a net contributor to society's wealth.
Would taxation now be theft? Would it only not be theft if I was a net beneficiary from public goods?
Well, suppose that the government wastes money by providing goods and services at above the market rate, and hence charges everyone too much. Should the excess be marked as thieved from me?
Note: Wouldn't it only be tax fraud if I make a false claim about how much tax I owed, rather than if I just refused to pay it.