1. Standard memberPalynka
    Upward Spiral
    Halfway
    Joined
    02 Aug '04
    Moves
    8702
    02 Mar '10 10:401 edit
    Originally posted by amolv06
    Do you guys have a favorite equation?

    Mine is e^(i*pi)+1=0.
    It's also my favourite equation/identity. 5 of the most important numbers in mathematics elegantly combined.
  2. Standard memberPalynka
    Upward Spiral
    Halfway
    Joined
    02 Aug '04
    Moves
    8702
    02 Mar '10 10:43
    Originally posted by joe shmo
    A mathematical identity is one that remains constant regardless of the values of the variables in it.

    ex.

    (sin(A))^2 + (cos(A))^2 = 1

    no matter what value you substitue for "A" the equation is true.

    although now I'm slightly confused because there are no variables in e^(pi*i) = -1

    ?

    Edit: ok actually its just a special case (x=pi) of

    e^(ix) = cos(x) + i*sin(x)
    Identities are equations, just a particular kind of equation.
  3. Joined
    07 Sep '05
    Moves
    35068
    02 Mar '10 10:53
    Originally posted by Palynka
    Identities are equations, just a particular kind of equation.
    Depends. In general, it's true. But in many contexts "equation" is used to mean specifically those expressions that aren't identities.

    From Wikipedia:

    "An equation is a mathematical statement that asserts the equality of two expressions."

    but then

    "Many authors reserve the term equation exclusively for the second type, to signify an equality which is not an identity."
  4. Cape Town
    Joined
    14 Apr '05
    Moves
    52945
    02 Mar '10 11:14
    Originally posted by mtthw
    Contrasting with an equation, which is true for particular values. A simple example:

    2x = x + x, is an identity
    2x = x + 1, is an equation with the solution x = 1.
    So an identity is an equation whose solution is R for each variable in the equation.

    I suspect that it is cheating to say
    e^(i*pi)+1=0

    is just a special case of
    e^(ix) = cos(x) + i*sin(x)

    Surely there are other possible identities it could be a 'special case' of?
    eg: e^(ix) + x = cos(x) + i*sin(x) + x

    And we still haven't really settled the question of whether an equation or identity must have variables. Presumably and equation with only constants has to be an identity.
  5. Joined
    11 Nov '05
    Moves
    43938
    02 Mar '10 11:17
    I think we all know the difference between an identity and an equation.
    Now we're just splitting hairs.
    Is this really interesting, regarding the title of the thread?
  6. Standard memberPalynka
    Upward Spiral
    Halfway
    Joined
    02 Aug '04
    Moves
    8702
    02 Mar '10 11:30
    Originally posted by mtthw
    "Many authors reserve the term equation exclusively for the second type, to signify an equality which is not an identity."
    I agree that in general identities are called identities (and not equations) but that doesn't mean they are not considered to be equations. It's just more precise to specify them as identities. But I agree with Fabian, maybe we're just splitting hairs. 🙂
  7. Joined
    07 Sep '05
    Moves
    35068
    02 Mar '10 12:121 edit
    Originally posted by Palynka
    I agree that in general identities are called identities (and not equations) but that doesn't mean they are not considered to be equations. It's just more precise to specify them as identities. But I agree with Fabian, maybe we're just splitting hairs. 🙂
    I know, but he seemed to suggest that being pedantic isn't interesting! 🙂

    In the interests of actually contributing to the original intent of the thread...as an ex-fluid dynamicist, I'd probably have to go for the Navier-Stokes equation. Lots of interesting physical behaviour all tied up in a single equation. And although it's only an approximation (the continuum approximation) it gives an accurate representation of reality over a huge range of scales.
  8. Standard memberadam warlock
    Baby Gauss
    Ceres
    Joined
    14 Oct '06
    Moves
    18375
    02 Mar '10 12:291 edit
    Originally posted by twhitehead
    Don't all equations have that property?
    No.

    For instance in F=ma only works for certain values of F, m and a.

    While (a+b)^2=a^2+b^2+2ab works for all values of a and b.
  9. Joined
    08 Oct '06
    Moves
    24000
    02 Mar '10 19:46
    Originally posted by mtthw
    That is a nice one, though you could argue it's an identity rather than an equation. If you wanted to be picky. 🙂
    My bad. I was under the impression that an equation was just a statement which asserted the equality of two expressions i.e. anything with an equal sign.
  10. Joined
    08 Oct '08
    Moves
    5542
    12 Mar '10 23:282 edits
    Originally posted by FabianFnas
    One of the most interesting equations, and one of the most famous ones too, I believe, is this:
    a^n + b^n = c^n, where a,b,c is an integer >0 and n is an integer >2.
    Fermat got interested in it, and myriads of mathematicians thereafter.

    One of the matematicians working with this equation is Sophie Germain (1776 - 1831) who has one of the most interes re.

    Simon Sing brought the attention to this equation in his book "Femat's Last Theroem".
    but the recent proof, while correct, doesn't have the qualities that led Fermat to state that:

    "I have discovered a truly marvelous demonstration of this proposition that this margin is too narrow to contain."

    perhaps someone will eventually recreate Fermat's actual "truly marvelous" proof - it would have to use only techniques and theories that Fermat himself could possibly have developed or been aware of during his lifetime.
  11. R
    Standard memberRemoved
    Joined
    10 Dec '06
    Moves
    8528
    14 Mar '10 00:09
    Originally posted by Melanerpes
    but the recent proof, while correct, doesn't have the qualities that led Fermat to state that:

    "I have discovered a truly marvelous demonstration of this proposition that this margin is too narrow to contain."

    perhaps someone will eventually recreate Fermat's actual "truly marvelous" proof - it would have to use only techniques and theories that Fermat himself could possibly have developed or been aware of during his lifetime.
    unfortunatley the mother of invention is necessity, so it may be a while before anyone descover the elegent proof. Or maybe fermat just made a mistake? What was he working on prooving while he came to this side problem that he didn't feel the need to outline a proof? I won't understand specifics, just trying to get the big picture.
  12. Joined
    07 Sep '05
    Moves
    35068
    14 Mar '10 09:18
    Originally posted by joe shmo
    Or maybe fermat just made a mistake?
    That would be my guess - that he came up with something that looked right initially, but was missing something. It's entirely possible someone has since come up with the same "proof", but discarded it after realising the problem.

    We'll never be sure, though.
  13. Joined
    11 Nov '05
    Moves
    43938
    14 Mar '10 09:38
    Originally posted by Melanerpes
    but the recent proof, while correct, doesn't have the qualities that led Fermat to state that:

    "I have discovered a truly marvelous demonstration of this proposition that this margin is too narrow to contain."

    perhaps someone will eventually recreate Fermat's actual "truly marvelous" proof - it would have to use only techniques and theories that Fermat himself could possibly have developed or been aware of during his lifetime.
    I don't think that Fermat really had a proof. However, I think that Wiles' proof is unnecessary complicated. I can't wait to see a proof that is simpler and more beautiful.
  14. Joined
    02 Aug '06
    Moves
    12622
    15 Mar '10 16:04
    Originally posted by amolv06
    Do you guys have a favorite equation?

    Mine is e^(i*pi)+1=0.
    3 x 4 = 12
Back to Top

Cookies help us deliver our Services. By using our Services or clicking I agree, you agree to our use of cookies. Learn More.I Agree