03 Dec '14 16:48>2 edits
Originally posted by adam warlockSo you're saying I should have done what I did for the type II elements to the entire set. Ok. give me a few hours.
Consider that the set has n elements: a_1, a_2,..., a_n
Take the "product" a_1*a_2*...*a_n.
From this, the result will follow.
If the set consists of only type I and type II elements then if z is all the elements multiplied together, by my earlier argument z² = z (and z is a type I element). Suppose the set is a, b, c, d, ..., k, l
let Ω(a) = b*c*d*...*k*l
a*Ω(a) = z
So Ω( · ) is doing the job of an inversion operator. Which doesn't yet prove anything but I can see how I could get there.
But I'm still worried about type III elements. Suppose the set consists of a, b, c and a² = b; b² = c; c² = c; then
z = a*b*c
z² = a*a*b*b*c*c = b*c*c = b*c != z (as a is not an identity element).
I'll check to see that this doesn't generate a contradiction.