11th Commandment: You Shall Learn Greek

@fmf said
They are not synonyms in English.

So? It's not English. duh!

@fmf said
On the previous page you went to great lengths to explain that in Greek Jesus used a word that means "to hate, pursue with hatred, detest". Then you recited something by Joe Bloggs et al. that insists that in Greek it, somehow, does NOT mean "to hate, pursue with hatred, detest" in this context.

Again, I did nothing but copy and paste, I did not really go to any lengths. Good try tho. You can go play with yourself some more now. I'm done here; with this conversation anyway. Good nite FMF.

@kingdavid403 said
So? It's not English. duh!

The translations we are talking about are in English, though. "To hate" and "to love less" are not synonyms. The Greek word for "hate" was used - which is problematical, to put it mildly - so someone has then wittered on about how it CAN mean something else that is NOT so problematical because, er... um... by extension it CAN mean [insert a different word here]...

@kingdavid403 said
You can go play with yourself some more now.

Thanks for the exquisite banter.

@fmf said
The translations we are talking about are in English, though. "To hate" and "to love less" are not synonyms. The Greek word for "hate" was used - which is problematical, to put it mildly - so someone has then wittered on about how it CAN mean something else that is NOT so problematical because, er... um... by extension it CAN mean [insert a different word here]...

Yep; I agree. The Greek language to English can be difficult; since a word in Greek can mean several different things. You're correct, and I agree.

@fmf said
Thanks for the exquisite banter.

I never have been exquisite at much.

@josephw said
Isaiah 7:14
Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.

H.L. Mencken was correct of course, the documents have been tampered with. And we'll soon see by whom.

You're begging the question. If the Hebrew word almah describing Mary's social and legal status had been correctly translated in the Greek NT, no one would have later thought that the OT verse you quoted would have any bearing on the matter. The only reason you or anyone else thinks it means "virgin" now and goes in search of 'corroborating' passages in the OT is that the Hebrew word almah was mistranslated into the NT about 2,000 years ago and a whacking great dogma about it has been nurtured. Get the original meaning right and that dogma evaporates.

-Removed-

Ah, because questions indicate doubts, and doubts indicate weak faith.

@kingdavid403 said
why do so many versions of the Bible in English use the word "hate"?
Because that is the Word that Jesus used in the Greek language when speaking. Those that first wrote the Gospels from eyewitness accounts, they wrote them in Greek; such as the Apostle John, Matthew, Mark, and Luke.

Translation into English did not happen until 1611. King James hired seve ...[text shortened]... to decipher the Greek; even tho it can be somewhat difficult to learn how to use a concordance good.

Translation into English did not happen until 1611.
The first complete English-language version of the Bible dates from 1382 and was credited to John Wycliffe and his followers.
My bad. 🙂 The King James Version was written in 1611.

@moonbus said
You're begging the question. If the Hebrew word almah describing Mary's social and legal status had been correctly translated in the Greek NT, no one would have later thought that the OT verse you quoted would have any bearing on the matter. The only reason you or anyone else thinks it means "virgin" now and goes in search of 'corroborating' passages in the OT is that ...[text shortened]... ng great dogma about it has been nurtured. Get the original meaning right and that dogma evaporates.

You're completely misunderstanding the verses, nor can you correctly comprehend what is meant by what is said.

Isaiah 7:14
Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.

Look at what the verse is saying. God says he'll give a "sign".

Since when is it a "sign" that a woman gets pregnant? The "sign" is she's a virgin. Otherwise it's no "sign" at all.

Pure reason necessitates that the Hebrew and Greek words be translated "virgin" because otherwise it ain't no sign!

Let's see if any of you naysayers has even the remotest amount of intellectual integrity to see how bizarre it is to say Mary wasn't a virgin based on reason and logic.

Or you can all just keep twisting the language around to mean whatever fits your preconceived point of view.

@moonbus said
Ah, because questions indicate doubts, and doubts indicate weak faith.

That's a projection. I have no doubts. None.

But you do.

-Removed-

Right genius! And God is flawed too.