This is what epi posted
In a past-infinite universe the present moment would never arrive since an infinite amount of time would have to elapse for it to do so
An infinite amount of time from when?
A starting point is implicit in the statement surely?
Between which 2 points is your "infinite amount of time"??
Your infinite amount of time is simply before the present moment.
The problem of a specific starting point is not epi's problem. That is the problem of the theorist who puts forth the concept that the universe existed infinitely.
This complaint of yours seems the most subtle reversal stradegy, making the theory's problem the delimma of the one who points out its illogic.
If you agree that there is a problem of no starting point then you agree also that it couldn't have possibly been so. That is how it appears to me.
Go argue with those then proposing that the universe infinitely existed in the past and not with those who indicate a logical problem with the concept.
Originally posted by sonshipIf the past is infinite then it has no starting point!
The problem of a specific starting point is not epi's problem. That is the problem of the theorist who puts forth the concept that the universe existed infinitely.
If you do not understand that concept then there can be no debate.
btw: I am not proposing the past is infinite, just saying that it cannot be resolved either way.
If the past is infinite then it has no starting point!
If you do not understand that concept then there can be no debate.
If the past is infinite then there is no starting point.
But this moment is here.
This moment arrived over the passage of infinity. How?
W.L. Craig remarks:
Now someone might say that while an infinite collection cannot be formed by beginning at a point and adding members, nevertheless an infinite collection could be formed by never beginning but ending at a point, that is to say, ending at a point after having added one member after another from eternity. But this method seems even more unbelievable than the first method. If one cannot count to infinity, how can one count down from infinity? If one cannot traverse the infinite by moving in one direction, how can one traverse it by simply moving in the opposite direction?
Indeed, the idea of a beginningness series ending in the present seems to be absurd. To give just one illustration: suppose we meet a man who claims to have been counting from eternity and is now finishing: . . ., -3, -2, -1, 0. We could ask, why did he not finish counting yesterday or the day before or the year before? By then an infinite time had already elapsed, so that he should already have finished by then. Thus, at no point in the infinite past could we ever find the man finishing his countdown, for by that point he should already be done! In fact, no matter how far back into the past we go, we can never find the man counting at all, for at any point we reach he will have already finished. But if at no point in the past do we find him counting, this contradicts the hypothesis that he has been counting from eternity. This illustrates the fact that the formation of an actual infinite by successive addition is equally impossible whether one proceeds to or from infinity.
Read more: http://www.reasonablefaith.org/the-existence-of-god-and-the-beginning-of-the-universe#ixzz2Q7T8tp7D
So we figure that time did have a beginning and from a starting point at the start of time on to the arrival of the present moment then makes sense.
btw: I am not proposing the past is infinite, just saying that it cannot be resolved either way.
But I think it is unfair for you to fault the objection that was faulted - namely the problem of traversing an infinite amount of time to arrive at this moment.
This is like counting down from infinity to 1. It is impossible.
I think I have to agree that an infinite number of things only exists theoretically in the imagination. There exists no actual infinite number of things. And I think that would include past moments.
Originally posted by sonshipI am disagreeing with the argument - why is that unfair?
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But I think it is unfair for you to fault the objection that was faulted - namely the problem of traversing an infinite amount of time to arrive at this moment.
This is like counting down from infinity to 1. It is impossible.
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I do not see any proof that the past is not infinite and find the argument for a finite past flawed,
Regarding "counting down from infinity" this is nonsense!
Where do you start?
Infinity is not a number
Originally posted by sonshipThe same way an infinite line is made up of points.
If the past is infinite then there is no starting point.
But this moment is here.
This moment arrived over the passage of infinity. How?
.
I really do not see a problem here.
Consider the line x=0 in Cartesian coordinates.
Values for y extend infinitely in the negative and positive.
Your argument says that to go from y= -inf to y=0 is an infinite distance.
An infinite distance cannot be traversed.
Therefore y=0 cannot exist.
Its bonkers.
Originally posted by wolfgang59I think the problem comes in when you go from the theoritical to the actual.
The same way an infinite line is made up of points.
I really do not see a problem here.
Consider the line x=0 in Cartesian coordinates.
Values for y extend infinitely in the negative and positive.
Your argument says that to go from y= -inf to y=0 is an infinite distance.
An infinite distance cannot be traversed.
Therefore y=0 cannot exist.
Its bonkers.
You can do many things theoretically on the number line with axioms and formulas.
But what about when it comes to actual existing things in the world, like discrete moments in time?
But don't you think that if the past is infinite the entire universe would have run down to ice coldness and darkness by now ?
Why not so long long ago?
Originally posted by sonshipI don't see how Planck time will reinforce your argument.
But what about when it comes to actual existing things in the world, like discrete moments in time?
The past could be an infinite number of discrete moments
or an infinite length of continuous time. Does it matter for
this discussion? I cannot see how.
Originally posted by sonshipThe concept of an infinite past depends (I think) on a multiverse, entropy only
But don't you think that if the past is infinite the entire universe would have run down to ice coldness and darkness by now ?
Why not so long long ago?
applies to the distinct universes within that.
(Better take this to Science for a detailed answer!)
Originally posted by vistesdI did make the analogy earlier in the thread but didn't set out the argument like you have. I certainly agree that the analogy is valid, and anyone claiming time must logically be finite must explain how time differs from the set of integers, or the set of reals.
The analogous argument would then be that, if the real number line is infinite, then an infinite sequence of numbers would have to be “traversed” (in this case from either direction) to “arrive at” r=0; therefore the real number line must be finite (in at least one direction)—or else r=0, and by extension, any other arbitrarily selected point on the number line, is impossible.
Originally posted by sonshipCounting down from a starting point of infinity is impossible, because infinity is not a number and no 'starting point' exists. Counting infinitely through an infinite set given infinite time, or infinite speed, is not impossible.
Actual counting to or down from infinity is an impossible handling of these facts.
Craigs argument relies on two errors:
1. The creation of a number 'infinity' as a starting point.
2. An analogy to the real world which is pre-assumed to be finite (which is illogical because the argument is an attempt to prove this.)