Originally posted by rwingett
The claim that they are not referring to any specific god is a disingenuous one. Even though it's not explicitly stated, it's painfully obvious which god they mean. But even if it wasn't, it wouldn't matter. The fact remains that the phrase endorses the belief in a god of some type. There are many citizens in this country who have no belief in any god and f de reflecting upon anyone's religious faith, it makes far more sense to remove them all.
Just for the sake of arguement lets say that the God that is refered to is the judeo-Christian God. To be honest with you, I would have to agree with your assumption that the Christian God is the God being referred to. After all, the consensus religion in the culture the Founding Fathers presided over was Christianity. I don't think any one disputes that. For example, I doubt seriously they had to avoid offending any Hindus in the early years of the new government. I do realize that there seemed to be some atheists as well as Deists among the mix but they do not seem to have been the consensus. Therefore, it is my conviction that the founders primary concern was to avoid a theocracy and that they have done and at the same time not to go to war with the religious heritage that was based in Christianity that helped form this country. After all, I see no evidence of a cultural war we see today between those of faith and secular humanists.
The founding fathers in no way wanated a state sponsored church. This is the way I interpret them not respecting the "establishment" of any particular organized religion rather than shunning the beliefs of a particular religion as we see today. After all, there is a huge difference between shunning the politics of organized religion and shunning the beliefs of a particular set of religious beliefs and ideals. Here are a few examples to prove my point. In 1781 Congress approved the purchase of Bibles to be used in schools.
Where was the outcry from our Founding Fathers? My guess is that none of you will be able to provide me with any. My only conclusion then is that they would have to have been in agreement with this decision, no? Still not convinced? In 1787 Congress passed the Northwest Ordinance which outlines requirements for governments of new territories so they can quilify for statehood. Article 3 or the Northwest Ordinance directs the people of the territories to extablish schools "to teach religion, morality, and knowledge." Nearly every state admitted to he Union after this has written in their State Constitution wording that the schools are to teach morality and religoin and they all use the Bible as the basis for thier teachings. Granted, there is no doubt in my mind that when Congress said that religion must be taught in schools, they were referring to the religion of Christianity since this was the majority consensus in the early years of this country and since they endorsed using the Bible. You see the Christian religion was so engrained in their thinking that they did not feel it necessary to say to teach the Christian religoin and that the Bible should be used to teach religion. However, does this endorse any particular state sponsored church? No, in fact it did not. Had it endorsed a particular church to teach religion I think they would have been corrected and this would not have been included in the Ordinance because it would have been a direct violation of the Constitution. Could you imagine such an Ordinance being passed today? You see our culture is much different than that of our founding fathers. There is, in fact, no comparison between the secularism of today and the seculurism in the days of our founding fathers.