Originally posted by Rajk999Far more interesting is how you interpret it.
What do Christians make of this verse:
Now we know that God heareth not sinners: but if any man be a worshipper of God, and doeth his will, him he heareth. (John 9:31 KJV)
God does not hear sinners, but hears those that worship and obey?
How can this verse be interpreted?
Are you just using it to load up your gun again against Christians?
Are you claiming that God does not hear Christians?
We realize that you consistently claim that Christians not only profess with their mouth without speaking from their heart, but also do not obey God. The problem is that this is clearly shown to be not true, especially applying it, as you do, to the entire category called "Christians".
Come down off your high horse for just a moment and just try to entertain that you may be wrong. What does the Bible say about arrogance and narcissism?
Originally posted by Rajk999Well, since omniscience is an attribute normally associated with God one has to wonder what is meant by "heareth not". Presumably this implies some sort of focus in the same way that one can hear a conversation but not pay attention to it.
What do Christians make of this verse:
Now we know that God heareth not sinners: but if any man be a worshipper of God, and doeth his will, him he heareth. (John 9:31 KJV)
God does not hear sinners, but hears those that worship and obey?
How can this verse be interpreted?
Originally posted by DeepThoughtI guess that would be correct. God hears and would not respond to sinners, but would respond to those who please him.
Well, since omniscience is an attribute normally associated with God one has to wonder what is meant by "heareth not". Presumably this implies some sort of focus in the same way that one can hear a conversation but not pay attention to it.
Originally posted by Rajk999I'm sorry, what?
What do Christians make of this verse:
Now we know that God heareth not sinners: but if any man be a worshipper of God, and doeth his will, him he heareth. (John 9:31 KJV)
God does not hear sinners, but hears those that worship and obey?
How can this verse be interpreted?
Originally posted by Rajk999Jesus was not a sinner so he was able to get his prayer answered in healing that blind man.
What do Christians make of this verse:
Now we know that God heareth not sinners: but if any man be a worshipper of God, and doeth his will, him he heareth. (John 9:31 KJV)
God does not hear sinners, but hears those that worship and obey?
How can this verse be interpreted?