11 Jun '08 11:53>
Take note, I'm not out to prove or disprove anyone's beliefs here, I'm simply asking a question that I'm hoping to get more intelligent responses to than I sometimes can get from the people in my community.
To me, the God of the Old Testament (OT) seems so very, very different to the God of the New Testament (NT). A couple of reasons being:
1) His complete favouritism of the Jews and seemingly higher value of each Jewish person than other people, comapred to the NT where he suddenly becomes vastly more accomodating to the Gentiles.
2) His relative value placed on human life, where he's more than happy to personally strike down or send angels to kill many people in the OT, but as far as I can remember doesn't seem to directly cause harm to any person in the NT.
3) His willingness to intervene entirely changes from one acting on his own ambitions, using the Jews as a whole as a conduit for his will on many occasions, compared to his seemingly complete lack of intervention in the NT where he only displays his power through his followers and in very pre-defined ways (healing, tongues, resurrection, etc.).
Why does this change of personality seem to occur? Is it actually a change or is he essentially just changing his methods with the time? If he does change, would this not contradict the nature of God being a timeless being?
Keep in mind, I'm not trying to attack the concept of God, I'm simply trying to understand this myself. I am a Theist, but one with so very, very many questions.
To me, the God of the Old Testament (OT) seems so very, very different to the God of the New Testament (NT). A couple of reasons being:
1) His complete favouritism of the Jews and seemingly higher value of each Jewish person than other people, comapred to the NT where he suddenly becomes vastly more accomodating to the Gentiles.
2) His relative value placed on human life, where he's more than happy to personally strike down or send angels to kill many people in the OT, but as far as I can remember doesn't seem to directly cause harm to any person in the NT.
3) His willingness to intervene entirely changes from one acting on his own ambitions, using the Jews as a whole as a conduit for his will on many occasions, compared to his seemingly complete lack of intervention in the NT where he only displays his power through his followers and in very pre-defined ways (healing, tongues, resurrection, etc.).
Why does this change of personality seem to occur? Is it actually a change or is he essentially just changing his methods with the time? If he does change, would this not contradict the nature of God being a timeless being?
Keep in mind, I'm not trying to attack the concept of God, I'm simply trying to understand this myself. I am a Theist, but one with so very, very many questions.