Originally posted by JonoKyle The jews really aren't the issue I have here. I don't disagree with you about the Jews, but what I was trying to find opinions on is why God appears to radically change in character between the OT and the NT.
i cant answer your question but what i've never understood is why 2000+ years ago we have plagues, burning bushes, parting seas, we even had god's son.... it's certainly been quiet recently
Originally posted by rwingett So items which are in harmony with god and the bible are correctly understood by humans, but items which seem to contradict god and the bible are merely limitations to our understanding. Nifty how that works.
Originally posted by JonoKyle Take note, I'm not out to prove or disprove anyone's beliefs here, I'm simply asking a question that I'm hoping to get more intelligent responses to than I sometimes can get from the people in my community.
To me, the God of the Old Testament (OT) seems so very, very different to the God of the New Testament (NT). A couple of reasons being:
1) His com ...[text shortened]... ing to understand this myself. I am a Theist, but one with so very, very many questions.
He was doing different things during the two time frames, in the OT
He was working to get to the things He did in the NT. It isn't that He
is different, it is what was required to be done, and what was done.
Kelly
Originally posted by KellyJay No thank you, nothing there.
Kelly
I am just curious: what do you mean by “nothing there”? do you simply mean that there is “no belief in god there“?
If so, that’s the whole point of atheism because you don’t need “anything there“! And, I would agree with 667joe, assuming that “no belief in god there“ does make everything make more sense. That’s partly because "gods" or "god" is an unnecessary hypothesis to explain any observable phenomenon.
But if this is not what you mean by “nothing there”, than exactly what do you mean by “nothing there”?
-I mean, exactly what is it that “isn’t there“?