I am, as we speak, about to go on a vacation. Best not to check these boards before going on vacation from the Forum.
But since I checked. I comment.
And Jesus went from there and withdrew into the parts of Tyre and Sidon. And behold, a Canaanite woman came out from those borders and cried out, Saying, Have mercy on me, Lord, Son of David! My daughter suffers terribly from demon possession.
Jesus is driven by the rejection by the religious Jews. And the opportunity to contact the heavenly King came to the Gentiles. This is why Matthew includes this account.
The title
"Lord" reveals His divinity. And the title
"Son of David" speaks of His humanity. So why did Jesus ignore the woman's calling after Him ---
"Son of David" ? But He did receive her calling Him
"Lord".
"But He did not answer her a word. "
Jesus, explains to His disciples that His primary mission is to the Israelites.
The Canaanite woman does not have the ground to address Him as
"Son of David". She, along with every other non-Israelite, regardless of nation, race, etc. is a Gentile "dog". That is an unclean animal in terms of the theocratic nation of Israel.
Only the Israelites have the standing to request from the King of Israel as "the Son of David." Jesus emphasizes this. What He refused to respond to was her addressing Him with the imploring to
"the Son of David."
"But He answered and said [to His disciples] , I was not sent except to the lost sheep of the house of Israel." (v.24)
Though the Lord Jesus was sent to the lost sheep of the house of Israel, at this time He came to a Gentile region. And the Gentile could partake of His grace once sheep addressed Him as
"Lord" understanding it is on that ground she receives grace. It is not on the gounds of His being the Israelite Messiah.
The dispensational significance of the account reveals that Christ came to the Jews first and that because of their unbelief, His salvation turned to the Gentiles
(Acts 13:46; Rom. 11:11).
Matthew's quite deliberate inclusion of the account, as many of his others, have a dispensational significance. Expounding the passage to justify some kind of racial supremacy of some Gentiles over other Gentiles is questionable imo. All the non-Jewish nations are considered here the unclean animals forbidden for diet.
Does the passage argue for racial supremacy of Israelites? Ie - Supreme Jews verses all Gentile "dogs". It does convey that Jesus understood completely His mission to the one and only genuinely theocratic nation that ever existed on earth - Israel. It is fact that Jesus is the Israelite Messiah.
But the end of the story Jesus is the food meant to get into all people. In the end He is either the bread on the table to be eaten by the Israelite children or the crumbs pushed off the table, landing on the ground for the Gentile little dogs.
Jesus, being rejected, is like the bread for the children knocked off of the children's table (signifying their rejection in unbelief) and landing in the region of the Gentiles for their taking Him in as the fallen crumbs under the table.
"But she came and worshipped Him, saying , Lord, help me!
But He answered and said, It is not good to take the children's bread [israel's Messiah] and throw it to the little dogs."
He remains forever the real Israelite Messiah. He does not discard them for the unclean Gentile non-Israelites as the
"Son of David" for them.
"And she said, Yes, Lord ..."
She understands her place as a Gentile, "unclean" as a "little dog" in relation to the Jewish theocratic nation. But she also understand that He is the
'Lord" in His divinity as God of all.
" ... for even the little dogs eat of the crumbs which fall from the master's table.
Then Jesus answered and said to her, O woman, great is your faith! Be it done to you as you wish. And her daughter was healed from that hour."
cont below.
And then vacation for me!
(Yea right)