26 Jun '13 21:24>2 edits
"But of the Son, Your throne, O God, is forever and ever, ..." (Hebrews 1:8)
Let us take a look at the original language of this verse
ho thronos sou ho theos eis ton aiona tou aionos, which reads literally as,
the throne of you oh God, to the age of the age.
http://interlinearbible.org/hebrews/1-8.htm
You will notice dear reader that in the Greek text there is no verb [is] and its up to the translator to supply the verb when translating in English, for English is not Greek and it must be made grammatically correct in the language to which it is being rendered. The problem for the translator is where to put the implied verb [is]
Now let us take a look at the sentence, 'the throne of you', means 'your throne', 'the god' is the New testaments way of saying God, for it contains the definite article, 'the'. 'to the age of the age', is a typical way of saying forever and ever. Now the question is, where does the implied verb [is] go to make it all come together.
In English we know exactly where to place a verb, it comes between the subject and the object of the verb or in sentences that use the verb 'to be', between the subject and the predicate noun or predicate adjective or some other predicate modifier. The question of Hebrews is what is the subject? Subject nouns in Greek are usually in the nominative case, but when the verb 'to be', is used other nouns in the sentence can also be in the nominative state.
In Hebrews 1:8 we have two nouns in the nominative form, 'throne', and 'God'. The verb therefore belongs between these two nouns as it does in dozens of other cases. That being the case, the text should read, 'your throne is God, forever and ever'. Thus the New world translation accurately depicts the verse as,
(Hebrews 1:8) But with reference to the Son: “God is your throne forever and ever. . . .'
The New revised standard version and the Today's English version also recognise this as a valid translation in footnotes to the verse in their editions.
Now the question dear reader, why have the translators cited by the trinitarians ignored this grammatically simple and correct treatment and translated the verse to make it appear the Christ is God? By now you have no need of me telling you dear reader, RELIGIOUS BIAS. Another sly attempt to usurp the pure and undefiled word of God by introducing a doctrine not explicitly stated in the text. At least this time their deception relies upon the placement of the implied verb rather than blatantly adding words, never the less, its plain for all to see, why they have done so. Lets see if it takes them as long not to admit it again.
Let us take a look at the original language of this verse
ho thronos sou ho theos eis ton aiona tou aionos, which reads literally as,
the throne of you oh God, to the age of the age.
http://interlinearbible.org/hebrews/1-8.htm
You will notice dear reader that in the Greek text there is no verb [is] and its up to the translator to supply the verb when translating in English, for English is not Greek and it must be made grammatically correct in the language to which it is being rendered. The problem for the translator is where to put the implied verb [is]
Now let us take a look at the sentence, 'the throne of you', means 'your throne', 'the god' is the New testaments way of saying God, for it contains the definite article, 'the'. 'to the age of the age', is a typical way of saying forever and ever. Now the question is, where does the implied verb [is] go to make it all come together.
In English we know exactly where to place a verb, it comes between the subject and the object of the verb or in sentences that use the verb 'to be', between the subject and the predicate noun or predicate adjective or some other predicate modifier. The question of Hebrews is what is the subject? Subject nouns in Greek are usually in the nominative case, but when the verb 'to be', is used other nouns in the sentence can also be in the nominative state.
In Hebrews 1:8 we have two nouns in the nominative form, 'throne', and 'God'. The verb therefore belongs between these two nouns as it does in dozens of other cases. That being the case, the text should read, 'your throne is God, forever and ever'. Thus the New world translation accurately depicts the verse as,
(Hebrews 1:8) But with reference to the Son: “God is your throne forever and ever. . . .'
The New revised standard version and the Today's English version also recognise this as a valid translation in footnotes to the verse in their editions.
Now the question dear reader, why have the translators cited by the trinitarians ignored this grammatically simple and correct treatment and translated the verse to make it appear the Christ is God? By now you have no need of me telling you dear reader, RELIGIOUS BIAS. Another sly attempt to usurp the pure and undefiled word of God by introducing a doctrine not explicitly stated in the text. At least this time their deception relies upon the placement of the implied verb rather than blatantly adding words, never the less, its plain for all to see, why they have done so. Lets see if it takes them as long not to admit it again.