Originally posted by epiphinehas
So how are they going to circumvent Matthew 25:46?
"And these will go away into everlasting punishment, but the righteous into eternal life" (Matt. 25:46).
In both cases, referring to both hell and heaven, Jesus uses the word, aionios. If hell will eventually be empty, as the RCC wants to be able to say, then aionios would have to be ...[text shortened]... " Hell is everlasting, and life in heaven is eternal, just as Christ describes.
A quick search of Young’s Literal Translation (which we have both drawn on in the past; though I think it is not always quite literal) shows no occurrences whatsoever of the word “forever.” The word “everlasting” occurs once, in Jude 1:6, and translates the Greek
aidios. This word is also translated as “eternal” in Romans 1:20. (The word “eternity” also does not occur in YLT.)
YLT translates
aionios in Matthew 25:46 as “age-during.”
Liddel-Scott translates it as “lasting for an age (
aion)”, but also sources Plato as using it to mean everlasting or eternal, or perpetual. My Greek/English
The Divine Liturgy of Saint John Chrysostom consistently translates
aionias ton aionian as “ages of ages.”
I suggest that, before we interpret, perhaps we could simply agree on YLT as a straight-forward translation. If nothing else, that leaves it open to interpretation.
Interestingly, the same kind of parallelism occurs in this Matthean passage as in the Corinthians passage vis-à-vis the word “all”—
1 Corinthians 15:22 for as
all (pantes) die in Adam, so
all (pantes) will be made alive in Christ... 28 When
all (panta) are subjected to him, then the Son himself will also be subjected to the one who put
all (panta) in subjection under him, so that God may be
all in all (panta en pasen).
Now, I have maintained that the “all” cannot mean two different things within a single sentence, especially when the parallelism is so clear. And this text seems quite apropos to my opening post. Have all “died in Adam”? Will all “be made alive in Christ”?
That is the same kind of argument you’re making from the Matthean verse. Taken at face value, that implies a contradiction between Paul and Matthew here. That is not such a problem for me, because I am quite willing to accept that Paul and Matthew had two differing theological views.
I already indicated how I would reconcile the two, following a stream of thought in Orthodoxy—
“The division into ‘sheep’ and ‘goats’ of which the Last Judgment scene speaks would thus be made, not between two crowds of human beings, but between two kinds of character within each individual. In practice, other parables of a similar kind like that of the ‘good seed’ and the ‘tares’ cannot be interpreted in any other way. Jesus explains that the ‘good seed means the sons of the Kingdom; the weeds are the sons of the evil one’, and that at the end these latter will be cast into the blazing furnace (Matthew 13:36). Only Gnostics and Manicheans can hold that it is a question here of people. All human beings are creatures of God. What is ‘sown by the devil’ is destructive suggestions, the seeds of idolatry and folly. Good seeds and tares are human dispositions. To destroy the thoughts sown by the evil one is not to destroy the person but to cauterize him.”
—That is, I take Paul’s statement as a straightforward one, and take Matthew’s—which is in the context of a parable—to be metaphorical; hence Matthew’s use of the less precise word
aionios instead of the more precise
aidios. (Although Matthew seems to use
aionios exclusively in the four relevant references; interestingly, again, this is the Greek word used in the LXX to translate the Hebrew
l’olam, which has even a wider range of possible meanings.)
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Toward the end of our “Great Debate,” you brought in the word
apollumi, but we never got to discuss it. How does that concept fit into your view?