Originally posted by lucifershammerSo, if I understand correctly, if there is a 30% remarriage rate, then
"Age-specific remarriage rates are the number of remarrying males or females registered in the calendar year, by age at marriage, per 1,000 widowed and divorced estimated resident population of the same sex and age at 30 June. Males and females aged under 15 years are excluded from the population."
http://www.abs.gov.au/AUSSTATS/abs@.nsf/Latestprod ...[text shortened]... /glossary/default.aspx?p=10&ss=
http://www.statistics.gov.uk/STATBASE/ssdataset.asp?vlnk=9270
that means 300 widowed/divorced people remarried out of every 1000
widowed/divorced.
Is this right?
Nemesio
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Originally posted by lucifershammerSorry, but under the metric you have given, you are mistaken. I can construct an example with an intra-marriage transmission rate as close to 100% as you would like while not surpassing a 30% remarriage rate as you have defined it.
No, it can't. The upper limit is 19/26 or ~73%.
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Originally posted by lucifershammerHow so? It counts "the number of remarrying males." One person can't be more than one male.
No - he is counted 6 times.
If the metric is actually as you interpret it, then it is possible to have a remarriage rate greater than 100%.
These are but two aspects of why your metric sucks.
Are you going to move the target yet again?
Originally posted by DoctorScribblesThanks, but no thanks. Play your games by yourself, little boy.
I'll show you the example when you're ready to make the wager.
Anyway, you were probably going to throw in 500 HIV-ve divorcees into the population or something like that. Or, you were about to have the 30% remarriers of the HIV+ve population remarry about 100 times each or something like that.