12 Nov '12 09:19>3 edits
Originally posted by sumydidThat's fine. We have answered that point. From a strictly legal pespective, the mere funding of something that is against an individual religion's beliefs is not contrary to the First Amendment.
I'm simply wondering from a strictly legal perspective
I have given you an analysis based on what the First Amendment says and what is intended for. googledfudge has shown the absurdity that arises if you interpret it in the way you have suggested. He has also shown that trying to limit the First Amendment's principles to certain religions is, itself, a violation of the First Amendment.
There is a basic legal interpretative principle that, if you can interpret a piece of legislation in two ways, one which results in abursidity, and another which doesn't, then you favour the latter.
I just mention all this, as I know that your only interest in this debate is one of strict legal interpretation, and we have clarified that your interpretation cannot be the correct legal one.