John 5:30

By myself I [Jesus] can do nothing; I judge only as I hear, and my judgment is just, for I seek not to please myself but him who sent me.

What does this mean?

Originally posted by AThousandYoung
[b]By myself I [Jesus] can do nothing; I judge only as I hear, and my judgment is just, for I seek not to please myself but him who sent me.

What does this mean?[/b]

It is a compound sentence that contains many ideas, firstly that without the Father Jesus can do nothing of his own initiative and that Jesus is therefore subject to the will of the Father which has many implications in itself.

"I and the Farther are one"

"If you have seen me, you have seen the Father"

"Before Abraham was, I am" (and the religious officials wanted to kill him for saying this innocuous phrase)

"The fullness of the godhead dwelt in him in bodily form.

Note: absolutely nothing about him being an archangel.

It could perhaps be argued that as Jesus was subject to the limitations of being a man, he had to subject himself before the Father in order to sacrifice himself for the sins of mankind.

'Being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross. (Phil.2)

Originally posted by Ghost of a Duke
It could perhaps be argued that as Jesus was subject to the limitations of being a man, he had to subject himself before the Father in order to sacrifice himself for the sins of mankind.

'Being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross. (Phil.2)

The text does not say that he was subject to the limitations of being a man, you simply made it up. Furthermore its becomes rather apparent that when resurrected to heaven and restored to Kingly glory he also subjects himself to God, negating the entire idea.

Then, when all things are under his authority, the Son will put himself under God's authority, so that God, who gave his Son authority over all things, will be utterly supreme over everything everywhere. 1 Corinthians 15:28

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
The text does not say that he was subject to the limitations of being a man, you simply made it up.

The text does not say that he was the archangel Michael, you simply made it up.

Originally posted by AThousandYoung

Jesus Christ is the mingling of God and man.

He came not only to be our Redeemer, ie. dying an atoning death for our forgiveness. But He also lived a life as God intended human life to live.

He was dependent upon His Father. He set up a standard model that we might live a mingled life with Him as He lived a mingled life with the Father -

"As the living Father sent Me and I live because of the Father, so he who eats Me, he also shall live because of Me." (John 6:57)

To MINGLE two or more things together means to combine them in such a way so that the components remain distinguishable in the combination.

In Jesus Christ we discern God Himself and we discern a human Man. He is the mingling of God and man that we might also become mingled with God.

I sense a "wall of text" coming on. So some further things will have to be unsaid here. Hopefully I'll put them in another post.

Originally posted by sonship
Jesus Christ is the mingling of God and man.

He came not only to be our Redeemer, ie. dying an atoning death for our forgiveness. But He also lived a life as God intended human life to live.

He was dependent upon His Father. He set up a standard model that we might live a mingled life with Him as He lived a mingled life with the Father -

[quot ...[text shortened]... on. So some further things will have to be unsaid here. Hopefully I'll put them in another post.

wow pure shamanism.

"Mingled" by the way, is a biblical word. It is used in the typology of the fine flower "mingled" with oil in the "meal offering" of Leviticus 2:1-16.

Significant scholars acknowledge the "meal offering" of fine flour mingled with oil is typology of the incarnation of the Son of God. See Lev. 2:5.

"And if your offering is a meal offering baked on a flat plate, it shall be of fine flour mingled with oil, unleavened." ( Lev. 2:5)

That is His perfect humanity united with the eternal Spirit of God.

Fine flour, the main element of the meal offering, signifies Christ's humanity, which is fine, perfect, tender, balanced, and right in every way, with no excess and no deficiency. This signifies the beauty and excellence of Christ's human living and daily walk. The fine flour of the meal offering was produced our of wheat that had passed through many processes, which signify the various sufferings of Christ that made Him "a man of sorrows" (Isa. 53:3)

... The oil of the meal offering signifies the Spirit of God as the divine element of Christ ... the Spirit of God as Christ's divinity was mingled with His humanity (Matt. 1:18,20; Luke 1:35) and that the Spirit was poured upon Him (Matt. 3:16; John 1:32) to anoint Him (Luke 4:18; Heb. 1:9). This is a picture of the two aspects of Christ's experience of the Spirit of God. ...

See footnotes in the Recovery Version Bible on Leviticus chapter two.

www.recoveryversion.org

Robbie again shows his blind ignorance in mocking my post on mingle

The mingling of the fine flour with oil in the meal offering (vv. 4-5) signifies that Christ's humanity is mingled with the Holy Spirit (Matt. 1:18b) and His human nature is mingled with God's divine nature, making Him a God-man. Christ is both the complete God and the perfect man, possessing the divine nature and the human nature distinctly, without a third nature being produced. Through the divine mingling Christ's humanity has been uplifted to the highest standard. In His divinity Christ has the divine attributes, and these divine attributes are expressed through, with, and in His human virtues. This is the excellence of Jesus Christ.

Witness Lee's footnote in the RcV on Leviticus 2:4.

Originally posted by sonship
Robbie again shows his blind ignorance in mocking my post on [b]mingle

The mingling of the fine flour with oil in the meal offering (vv. 4-5) signifies that Christ's humanity is mingled with the Holy Spirit (Matt. 1:18b) and His human nature is mingled with God's divine nature, making Him a God-man. Christ is both the complete God and the per ...[text shortened]... ellence of Jesus Christ.

Witness Lee's footnote in the RcV on Leviticus 2:4.[/b]

these things are not explicitly stated in the text of leviticus and are probably extra Biblical, I will need to research the text to find out.

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
these things are not explicitly stated in the text of leviticus and are probably extra Biblical, I will need to research the text to find out.

Better run it passed Kingdom Hall, just to be safe

Originally posted by Ghost of a Duke
Better run it passed Kingdom Hall, just to be safe

Is references to my denomination really the best you have, weak man, real wimpy and weak!

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
Is references to my denomination really the best you have, weak man, real wimpy and weak!

I can do better with a few more coffees inside me.

So just to recap, i can't make references to your 'denomination' or your portly frame? I can't suggest you jog around your missionary round or tell you to stay the hell off my doorstep?.

Originally posted by Ghost of a Duke
It could perhaps be argued that as Jesus was subject to the limitations of being a man, he had to subject himself before the Father in order to sacrifice himself for the sins of mankind.

'Being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross. (Phil.2)

This is how I read it, yes.