Originally posted by bbarrLucifershammer, do you agree with bbarr's interpretation of this imperative?
Simply put, the second formulation is an injunction to respect and foster the autonomy of others. This is defeasible, however, in cases where the ends of others are vicious, or when their rational faculties are impaired. Kant wouldn't think it impermissible to use coercive force in self-defense, or to prevent a person from, say, driving drunk.