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-Removed-Like it says, it is the mystery of Godliness. There is one God in three persons,which are identified as the Father, the Son (the Word and Christ), and the Holy Spirit. Scriptures in the New Testament that support this trinitarian view are Matthew 3:16-17, Matthew 28:18-19, 1 John 5:7, 2 Corinthians 13:14, Ephesians 4:4-6, and 1 Peter 1:2, unless you have a translation that tries to obscure the references to the triune God.
The Instructor
Originally posted by robbie carrobieCould we have an explanation that it refers to Michael the angel ?
"Who, although he was existing in God’s form, gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God."
please can I have an explanation of this verse from those who state that Jesus is God Almighty.
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so the apostle stated that Jesus never even considered himself equal to God but really was God anyway. It makes absolutely no sense and is nonsense
As I read the passage it does not say He "never even considered himself equal to God." It says He did not regard that as a treasure to be "grasped". There is a difference.
"Who, existing in the form of God, did not consider being equal with God a treasure to be grasped." (RcV)
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Originally posted by sonshiphe never even considered himself equal to God and no amount of slithering around can negate the fact. I am utterly amazed at the contortions the trinitirian must go to in order to shoehorn in his dogma. Once one realises that Christ is a created entity, subservient to God, the scripture makes absolute sense, it really is that easy.so the apostle stated that Jesus never even considered himself equal to God but really was God anyway. It makes absolutely no sense and is nonsense
As I read the passage it does not say He "never even considered himself equal to God." It says He did not regard that as a treasure to be [b]"grasped". There is a difference.
"Who, ...[text shortened]... e form of God, did not consider being equal with God a treasure to be grasped." (RcV) [/b]
Originally posted by robbie carrobie"please can I have an explanation of this verse from those who state that Jesus is God Almighty."
"Who, although he was existing in God’s form, gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God."
please can I have an explanation of this verse from those who state that Jesus is God Almighty.
Is that a question?
My most immediate answer is that the translation you use is corrupt. The KJV is The Word of God in English. There are no errors in it.
The correct version of the original language is:
Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
Consider this next verse.
John 5:18
Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the sabbath, but said also that God was his Father, making himself equal with God.
Notice why they wanted to kill Jesus.
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Originally posted by josephwthere is no errors in it, how do you know? do you read Hebrew and Greek, no, then you will tell us how you know that the King James Version is error free and you will tell us how you came to the conclusion that our translation as you put it is corrupt, with example and reference to the original language text.
[b]"please can I have an explanation of this verse from those who state that Jesus is God Almighty."
Is that a question?
My most immediate answer is that the translation you use is corrupt. The KJV is The Word of God in English. There are no errors in it.
The correct version of the original language is:
Who, being in the form of God, thought ...[text shortened]... at God was his Father, making himself equal with God.
Notice why they wanted to kill Jesus.[/b]
BTW the King James version is not really a translation at all, its a translation of a translation, that being the Latin Vulgate, bet they never taught you that in Sunday school, there could have been no more than a handful of original papyri open to the translators, bet they never taught you that either. It also uses archaic English and has mythological creatures, such as unicorns in it.
and your silly interpretation is a failure, it was the Jews who were saying that Christ made himself equal to God, that is the enemies of Jesus, not Christ himself, the apostles testimony makes it quite clear that Jesus never even considered the idea making your assertion that he was making himself equal to God, quite ludicrous.
Originally posted by robbie carrobieI know because I can read.
there is no errors in it, how do you know? do you read Hebrew and Greek, no, then you will tell us how you know that the King James Version is error free and you will tell us how you came to the conclusion that our translation as you put it is corrupt, with example and reference to the original language text.
BTW the King James version is not r ...[text shortened]... at either. It also uses archaic English and has mythological creatures, such as unicorns in it.
Just as I know your posts are corrupt. Have you ever noticed how incorrect your grammar is? How can I believe YOU, when you say what you say, when you can't even use the English language correctly?
Your mind cannot even see the logic in it robbie. Ask yourself this simple question. How can The Word of God have errors in it?
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Originally posted by josephwno you do not know, you are reading a translation, i will ask you once again therefore, how do you know? if you cannot compare it to the original language then how can you compare it to see if its accurate, you have not said. You make the most silly assertions without the slightest piece of substantiating evidence, you make a claim that a translation is true and another corrupt, therefore, tell us how you know.
I know because I can read.
Just as I know your posts are corrupt. Have you ever noticed how incorrect your grammar is? How can I believe YOU, when you say what you say, when you can't even use the English language correctly?
Your mind cannot even see the logic in it robbie. Ask yourself this simple question. [b]How can The Word of God have errors in it?[/b]
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Originally posted by robbie carrobieMan! You haven't a clue as to how or why I know anything at all.
no you do not know, you are reading a translation, i will ask you once again therefore, how do you know? if you cannot compare it to the original language then how can you compare it to see if its accurate, you have not said. You make the most silly assertions without the slightest piece of substantiating evidence, you make a claim that a translation is true and another corrupt, therefore, tell us how you know.
First of all, the KJV isn't a translation. It is a version of the original languages.
Secondly, I have and can compare the KJV with at least a dozen other translations in mere moments.
And thirdly, as to your assertion that I, cannot know, you are most hypocritical.
If I can't know, than neither can you.
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he never even considered himself equal to God and no amount of slithering around can negate the fact.The verse does not say either of these two things which you imagine:
1.) Christ was not equal to God,
2.) Christ did not ever consider Himself equal to God.
It says:
1.) Christ being equal with God,
2.) Did not consider being so a treasure to be grasped.
So the next verse begins with "But" to show the surprising contrasting and unexpected way in the which Christ considered:
"BUT ... emptied Himself, taking the form of a slave, becoming in the likeness of men; and being found in fashion as a man, He humbled Himself becoming obedient even unto death, and that the death of a cross." (v.8)
The verse is not about Christ not being equal to God. It is about being so equal to God the surprising and radical self humbling He underwent in His incarnation, life and obedience unto death by crucifixion.
Originally posted by robbie carrobieIt is you that is doing the slithering like your father the devil.
he never even considered himself equal to God and no amount of slithering around can negate the fact. I am utterly amazed at the contortions the trinitirian must go to in order to shoehorn in his dogma. Once one realises that Christ is a created entity, subservient to God, the scripture makes absolute sense, it really is that easy.
The Instructor
Originally posted by robbie carrobieOnly the Watchtower Society would teach lies like that.
there is no errors in it, how do you know? do you read Hebrew and Greek, no, then you will tell us how you know that the King James Version is error free and you will tell us how you came to the conclusion that our translation as you put it is corrupt, with example and reference to the original language text.
BTW the King James version is not r ...[text shortened]... sidered the idea making your assertion that he was making himself equal to God, quite ludicrous.
The Instructor