1. Joined
    29 Dec '08
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    6788
    05 Jan '17 00:271 edit
    Originally posted by sonship
    "By the word "rock" the Saviour cannot have meant Himself, but only Peter, as is so much more apparent in Aramaic in which the same word (Kipha) is used for "Peter" and "rock". His statement then admits of but one explanation, namely, that He wishes to make Peter the head of the whole community of those who believed in Him as the true Messias; [/quot ...[text shortened]... stone, rejected by men but with God chosen and precious, ..." ( 1 Pet. 2:4)
    [/b]
    I am not making an argument, merely citing a source for the language used. Jesus might have been using a metaphor to respond to Peter's "Thou art the Christ, the Son of the living God."
  2. Standard memberwolfgang59
    Quiz Master
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    Joined
    09 Jun '07
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    48793
    05 Jan '17 03:55
    Originally posted by JS357
    I suggest you search on

    What language was Matthew written in?

    Several sources say it was Greek from the start. I like the idea that it wasn't written for an Aramaic audience and so wasn't translated from Aramaic.
    I was presuming the first written version was Greek but it was spoken in Aramaic.
  3. Joined
    29 Dec '08
    Moves
    6788
    05 Jan '17 16:09
    Originally posted by wolfgang59
    I was presuming the first written version was Greek but it was spoken in Aramaic.
    https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Language_of_Jesus
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