Originally posted by LemonJello
you cannot seriously be suggesting that the codes of conduct applied by all groups of people are initiated for the sake of these people.
Did I suggest that? Oh that's right: no. In fact, I already made it explicitly clear that I think the "codes of conduct" you are talking about (in the vein of descriptive ethics or, basically, anthrop ...[text shortened]... or any of his main theses or arguments thereof; and has nothing to do with the topic at issue.)
They all arise endogenously. This continues to be the obvious source of your confusion.
Again, no such confusion exists, except perhaps in your mind.
Let's try a different tack.
We blink, breathe and perform a few other functions completely without any thought given to the acts. Involuntary acts. In the case of a few of these acts, we can override the body's control and voluntarily perform the functions ourselves, e.g., blinking, breathing, swallowing.
Of the body's involuntary acts, none of them can cause death on their own. Each of them serve to keep the body intact, healthy and productive. However, we are able to voluntarily stop some of the acts if their normal function could lead to harm or worse. One example: we stop breathing when submerged beneath water.
According to the way most people consider morality, there is an inner light which informs us of how we should (ought to?) act among others. There is also an overt morality which is imposed upon the society in a lowest common denominator style. These two don't always agree, obviously, in the same sense that some states might allow certain activities which the federal government forbids.
If morality was entirely endogenous, there'd be no need for the enforced morality--- which clearly exists and at least up to this point has been historically necessary.
In comparison of the body's involuntary and voluntary actions, you seem to be describing morality as an involuntary action, whereas I am describing it as both involuntary as well as voluntary. Correct me if I have that wrong.
Contrary to what you implied, he doesn't promote your ridiculous claim that God's nonexistence points to nihilism -- only someone who has no education with secular ethics would make such a daft claim.
I did not imply any such promotion.
I'm not super familiar with moral fictionalist, but I do know that Joyce himself described his position as a moral nihilist.
He does so in the conclusion to the book you suggested,
The Evolution of Morality.
Not sure why that bothers you so much.