09 Jan '16 11:40>1 edit
At the moment I am reading an account of those who executed Charles I. Charles stated that the court he was standing before was illegitimate because he by virtue of the Divine right of Kings was answerable only to God. The court asserted that he ruled by the will of the people and had transgressed that trust by waging war upon them.
I suspect that the doctrine finds support in various verses in the Bible, notably Romans 13, where it states that, 'the superior authorities stand in their relative position placed their by God. . . .and he who takes a stance against this arrangement takes a stance against God'.
In my own mind however it is clear that in the case of Israels first King Saul, this came about not because of the will of God (who was against it) but because of the will of the people who desired a King like the nations. Samuel warned against this saying that it would result in oppression but the people would not listen. Saul and therefore all subsequent Kings of Israel were said to sit upon the throne of God as being a representative of God. Never the less this came about not by the will of God but by the will of the People.
There is some confusion therefore in my mind whether the doctrine finds any substantiation in scripture. If you know anything about it please let it be heard.
I suspect that the doctrine finds support in various verses in the Bible, notably Romans 13, where it states that, 'the superior authorities stand in their relative position placed their by God. . . .and he who takes a stance against this arrangement takes a stance against God'.
In my own mind however it is clear that in the case of Israels first King Saul, this came about not because of the will of God (who was against it) but because of the will of the people who desired a King like the nations. Samuel warned against this saying that it would result in oppression but the people would not listen. Saul and therefore all subsequent Kings of Israel were said to sit upon the throne of God as being a representative of God. Never the less this came about not by the will of God but by the will of the People.
There is some confusion therefore in my mind whether the doctrine finds any substantiation in scripture. If you know anything about it please let it be heard.