The evolution of the Coca Cola can

Originally posted by Fetchmyjunk
Which of his characteristics changed according to you?

You think the jealous, cruel and vengeful God of the OT sits comfortably with the loving, forgiving God of the NT?.....Seriously?!

Originally posted by Ghost of a Duke
You think the jealous, cruel and vengeful God of the OT sits comfortably with the loving, forgiving God of the NT?.....Seriously?!

I suppose we all grow up eventually.

Remember that Star Trek episode with the naughty god?

Originally posted by Fetchmyjunk
Ok should have been more specific: referring to a monotheism.

It's really not clear what your reference to the term "absolute" is supposed to convey - there are as many different sets of assumptions about a monotheistic god as there are believers in a monotheistic god, and your interpretation will die with you. What's "absolute" here?

Originally posted by wolfgang59
I suppose we all grow up eventually.

Remember that Star Trek episode with the naughty god?

In other words, this OT god is not the NT god? or did OT god, realizing it made mistakes, became the nice easy going god of the NT?

But I thought a god was supposed to be omniscient. If so, it knew for instance, that Eve would 'eat the apple' and fail, or knew Ab was loyal and therefore didn't need to give him that test and so forth, so it would have known there would be an OT and NT and would never have become a mean vengeful god in the first place.
This god would not have had free will.

Originally posted by Ghost of a Duke
You think the jealous, cruel and vengeful God of the OT sits comfortably with the loving, forgiving God of the NT?.....Seriously?!

At the very heart of this question lies a fundamental misunderstanding of what both the Old and New Testaments reveal about the nature of God. Another way of expressing this same basic thought is when people say, “The God of the Old Testament is a God of wrath while the God of the New Testament is a God of love.” The fact that the Bible is God’s progressive revelation of Himself to us through historical events and through His relationship with people throughout history might contribute to misconceptions about what God is like in the Old Testament as compared to the New Testament. However, when one reads both the Old and the New Testaments, it becomes evident that God is not different from one testament to another and that God’s wrath and His love are revealed in both testaments.

For example, throughout the Old Testament, God is declared to be a “compassionate and gracious God, slow to anger, abounding in love and faithfulness,” (Exodus 34:6; Numbers 14:18; Deuteronomy 4:31; Nehemiah 9:17; Psalm 86:5, 15; 108:4; 145:8; Joel 2:13). Yet in the New Testament, God’s loving-kindness and mercy are manifested even more fully through the fact that “God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life” (John 3:16). Throughout the Old Testament, we also see God dealing with Israel the same way a loving father deals with a child. When they willfully sinned against Him and began to worship idols, God would punish them. Yet, each time He would deliver them once they had repented of their idolatry. This is much the same way God deals with Christians in the New Testament. For example, Hebrews 12:6 tells us that “the Lord disciplines those he loves, and he punishes everyone he accepts as a son.”

In a similar way, throughout the Old Testament we see God’s judgment and wrath poured out on sin. Likewise, in the New Testament we see that the wrath of God is still “being revealed from heaven against all the godlessness and wickedness of men who suppress the truth by their wickedness” (Romans 1:18). So, clearly, God is no different in the Old Testament than He is in the New Testament. God by His very nature is immutable (unchanging). While we might see one aspect of His nature revealed in certain passages of Scripture more than other aspects, God Himself does not change.

Originally posted by twhitehead
You posted:

In order to understand absolute or universal truth, we must begin by defining truth. Truth, according to the dictionary, is “conformity to fact or actuality; a statement proven to be or accepted as true.”

Clearly 'absolute' is implied and there is no need to say 'absolute truth'. Just 'truth' should suffice.

[b]When did I g ...[text shortened]... out that people in the Bible committed rape on Gods orders. Was God immoral to so command them?

I must point out that people in the Bible committed rape on Gods orders. Was God immoral to so command them?

Are you perhaps referring to Numbers 31?

Originally posted by Fetchmyjunk
Are you perhaps referring to Numbers 31?

No, not specifically. Does it matter what I am referring to? Do you believe God has never ever sanctioned a single case of forced sex?

Originally posted by Fetchmyjunk
For example, throughout the Old Testament, God is declared to be a “compassionate and gracious God, slow to anger, abounding in love and faithfulness,” (Exodus 34:6; Numbers 14:18; Deuteronomy 4:31; Nehemiah 9:17; Psalm 86:5, 15; 108:4; 145:8; Joel 2:13).

'Slow to anger' suggests the capability of getting angry. Getting angry, or in fact any emotion whatsoever is a change. God could not act or speak or do anything without change. He cannot be static.

Originally posted by Fetchmyjunk
At the very heart of this question lies a fundamental misunderstanding of what both the Old and New Testaments reveal about the nature of God. Another way of expressing this same basic thought is when people say, “The God of the Old Testament is a God of wrath while the God of the New Testament is a God of love.” The fact that the Bible is God’s progress ...[text shortened]... revealed in certain passages of Scripture more than other aspects, God Himself does not change.

I think you have rather glossed over some of the nasty stuff in the OT, that is far removed from how a 'loving father deals with a child.'

Perhaps you need to re-visit it?

Originally posted by twhitehead
No, not specifically. Does it matter what I am referring to? Do you believe God has never ever sanctioned a single case of forced sex?

You seem rather hesitant to quote the verse?

Originally posted by Ghost of a Duke
I think you have rather glossed over some of the nasty stuff in the OT, that is far removed from how a 'loving father deals with a child.'

Perhaps you need to re-visit it?

I don't get your point are you saying it was evil for God to act the way he did? Or are you saying he has somehow changed?

Originally posted by Fetchmyjunk
You seem rather hesitant to quote the verse?

I never said there was a verse. I am not a Christian like you, I do not go around supporting everything I say with verse numbers.
Do you deny that God has ever sanctioned forced sex?

Originally posted by Fetchmyjunk
... we also see God dealing with Israel the same way a loving father deals with a child. When they willfully sinned against Him and began to worship idols, God would punish them. .

But that is not how a loving father deals with a child!

It is how an ignorant, stuck-in-the-past, condone-my-violence-with-the-bible father deals with a child.

Originally posted by Fetchmyjunk
You seem rather hesitant to quote the verse?

Pretending not to know that the Bible sanctions rape - on multiple occasions - speaks either of extreme ignorance of your holy book or extreme dishonesty in pretending not to know what's in it.

Originally posted by Fetchmyjunk
I don't get your point are you saying it was evil for God to act the way he did? Or are you saying he has somehow changed?

Not sure how to express it any more clearly. You stated God was unchanging and that there was no contradiction in character between God in the OT and NT. I have stated that the God of the OT is substantially different from the God in the NT, meaning one of 2 things:

1. They refer to different Gods.
2. God is not unchanging.

You decide which to run with.