11 Jan '10 22:24>1 edit
Originally posted by vistesdOoops! My meandering comments missed the whole point! đ Try again—
Having read through the material (although really skimming some chunks of it), here are my comments:
First, with regard to the opening comments about midrash and aggadah, I generally concur; and I especially liked the notion of midrash/aggadah being “a species of hypertext”, since the process (as seen in the written Midrashim) seems a lot like “hyper-text ...[text shortened]... iro, Hasidic Tales
* Conventionally translated “in the beginning” or “with beginning.”
Do Prices’ voluminous examples lead necessarily to the conclusion that Jesus was wholly a “midrashic” creation, with no historical reality? No.
First, a Galilean proto-rabbi of the period would have likely been steeped in both written and oral Torah, including midrashic methodology (even if the Galileans were not as halachically strict as their Judean counterparts). (See, e.g., Geza Vermes, Jesus the Jew.) As such, J would be expected to utter a lot of “spins” on all that material as he gave his torah (also a rabbinic expression).
Given the degree of exposure in Galilee to Greek culture, borrowings from a few of those stories would not be impossible either. But even if those came from the gospel-writer himself, that does not mean that the central figure was invented out of whole cloth.
Second, How much does wording have to change before one says that it might be original? Some of the examples in Price’s paper seem open to that question. But I will use an example that I don’t recall being in that paper (though maybe I just missed it):
Jesus is reported as saying: “Do unto other as you would have them to do unto you.” (Matthew 7:12, Luke 6:31)
Rabbi Hillel is reported as saying: “What is hateful to you, do not do to the other.” (Babylonian Talmud, Tractate Shabbat 31a)
Now, Hillel died in 10 C.E., when the historical Jesus would have been about 10-14 years old. It is likely that Hillel’s version (itself possibly spun from proverbial wisdom in the extra-canonical works of Tobit and Sirach) would have been known, as Hillel’s was one of the two principal rabbinic houses.
Now, does the simple reworking of Hillel’s formulation into a “do” from a “don’t do” imply in any way that the J who putatively taught that form had to be made up? Why could such a person, J, not have spun this new torah himself? Indeed, how come a real figure, called J, could no have spun most of the teaching midrash that the gospel writers (and the Q folks, if the Q hyptothesis is correct) attribute to him—no matter how much of the “biographical” materials might be midrash (aggadah) of another sort?
That is, focus on the parallels in the "biographical" portions, does not lead one to conclude that the figure of the "teachings" was not, let alone could not have been, a real figure.
At bottom, I still suspect that the older view—aside from that of biblical literalist/historicists—is more likely: There was a Galilean torah-teacher who we can call J, whose teachings, and some doings, were recalled—first orally, and then in written form—and also expanded upon for messianic/theological reasons.
Of the more well-known “historical Jesus” scholars, I tend to follow Geza Vermes (himself a Jew, and an Oxford scholar, especially of the Dead Sea Scrolls). He thinks that a historical layer can be identified in the gospels, but that it is minimal; one from which some historical conclusions can be, at least tentatively, drawn—but that they are not extensive.