02 Oct '09 17:52>5 edits
Originally posted by Wulebgr=================================
Moral knowledge and naming are not even in the same category. The English language fails here. In the Bible, knowing is also sex. The word is pregnant with connotations, some of which cannot abide in Eden. Observing that something is subordinate is not a call to throw it out, but it is an argument from removing it from the center.
It's a terrific myth, but you're cutting it's heart out with syncopated theology.
Moral knowledge and naming are not even in the same category.
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You did not explain to me what you meant by missing the point. So I made my best assumption.
Now that you have clarified your thoughts we can discuss them.
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The English language fails here. In the Bible, knowing is also sex. The word is pregnant with connotations, some of which cannot abide in Eden.
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So in Genesis3:22 when God says "Behold, the man has become like one of Us, knowing good and evil; now, lest he put forth his hand ... etc." God's concern was that man gained some kind of sexual knowledge that only God possessed?
Are you saying that the Creator alone wanted to have sex and forbad man from having sex ? That is a whole lot of connotation Wulebgr.
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Observing that something is subordinate is not a call to throw it out, but it is an argument from removing it from the center.
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When God said "Behold, the man has become like one of Us, knowing good and evil ..." does that sound to you like the matter of knowing good and evil like God is subordinate and not central ?
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It's a terrific myth, but you're cutting it's heart out with syncopated theology.
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At the present time the only sexual matter I see is that the possible loss of self control and the emerging of unbidled lust may have been a factor in making them feel ashamed.
I think by isolating the account from the rest of the revelation of the Bible you are arriving at some perculiar interpretations.
If sex was a forbidden matter why did God tell Adam and his wife to be fruitful and multiply (Gen. 1:28) Was God expecting them to do that without sexual activity?
Why also does the writer accompany the account with a reminder that a man and his wife are to be "one flesh" in (2:24)? For a man and his wife to become "one flesh" surely needs not much esoteric wisdom to understand that a most intimate union in love is being discribed.
I welcome your defence of your "mythology" analysis.