10 Apr '06 02:35>
Originally posted by no1marauderThe only "abridging" I've done is to quote the Commentary
You're getting more ridiculous with each post. The only "abridging" I've done is to quote the Commentary that is relevant as regards Exodus 21:21 rather than Commentary regarding passages that have no relevance to Exodus 21:21 as you have. And none of the Commentary support your claim in any way, shape or form. No translation before the late 20th Century ...[text shortened]... or I can't use a definition of the term?? If so, I laugh at such desperate idiocy.
Tut-tut: it will be alright. No one accused you of abridging anything, dear, just as no one "accused" Clarke, Henry or etc., of actually using the verb "to stand" in their sundry commentaries. Read this next part slow, so you don't miss anything, okay?
Clarke, Henry, et al, based their commentaries on the words of the Bible. Those words are translated from the original language into the vernacular of the day. In Henry's day it was "to continue," which, to us, means, "to stand."
I have told you now twice that I quoted from the site you provided the fifth link, which was an abridged version of the expanded, original version (posted here from another source). You, No1, did not abridge it. They, the site you provided, did.
f course, haven't shown a 14th Century dictionary either
You are correct, sir. I merely gave you the origins of the word. From the 14th century.
are you really claiming that I must unearth a pre-1000 AD Latin dictionary
I should, just to shut you up for awhile, but I won't.