Originally posted by Rajk999
1. For most there is none. For someone to have a rational basis means they must have had some kind of visitation [for want of a better word] from God or Christ or angel etc. For most belief is based on irrational faith.
2. No. Belief in the existance can occrur without having faith.
eg A person can believe that God exists but have no faith. His lack o ...[text shortened]... heir opulent lifestyle, their lack of charitable deeds and love for their fellow-men .. etc etc.
And here is a perfect case in point.
"1. For most there is none. For someone to have a rational basis means they must have had some kind of visitation [for want of a better word] from God or Christ or angel etc. For most belief is based on irrational faith."
See here is an acknowledgement that you need evidence (in this case a 'personal visitation by god'😉 to rationally justify
believing in something.
However no personal experience of any kind is acceptable evidence, by any definition I know, for the existence of god or
the supernatural.
Which would mean that I would disagree with the statement that you can have a rational belief in god based on a
personal experience.
So we need a mutually agreed definition of what we mean by rationality and evidence.
And again...
"2. No. Belief in the existance can occrur without having faith.
eg A person can believe that God exists but have no faith. His lack of faith is demonstrated by is lifestyle which is contrary to a God-fearing lifestyle. Many Christians actually live out this double standard. They have all the outer visible trappings of a Christian who believes in God but their faith is made void by their evil works ... their worldliness, their greed, their opulent lifestyle, their lack of charitable deeds and love for their fellow-men .. etc etc."
And this is talking about a different meaning of faith from the one I use.
Faith is a word with many many different meanings and which you pick or assume the op was talking about significantly alters what
answers your questions will elicit.
This is incidentally why in any field of technical discussion there are specialised dictionaries with the specific and well defined
meanings that are used in that profession (science being a good example) so that when a person writes a technical paper
everyone either knows what the terms mean precisely or know where to look to find the relevant accepted definition.
This applies to everything from legal jargon and accounting and economic terminology to scientific language.
As we don't have a universally acknowledged definition that we all accept for these terms that we can all use as a reference
we are going to have to [within reason] pick ones (and they can be different for different discussions) so that we are all on
the same page and not debating at cross purposes.
I would suggest that it should be up to the OP to declare what definition they are using when posting any particular questions.