Originally posted by SwissGambit
You believe in God, and think God is the source of moral absolutes. You take this to be axiomatic. So, why can't the secular ethicist operate from his own axioms - for example, he takes it as a given that human life should not be taken unless some demonstrable greater good is served [self-defense, for example]?
You believe in God, and think God is the source of moral absolutes. You take this to be axiomatic. So, why can't the secular ethicist operate from his own axioms
---------------------Swiss gambit------------------------------
It depends what you mean by "can't" . You can have axioms regarding what you think is absolutely right and absolutely wrong but if you do then there are intellectual implications to this and you need to accept them.
If you say a particular moral code is a "given" then you presumably mean that it is not open to scrutiny and is self evident. That must mean that the moral code is rooted in reality and not rooted in subjective opinion. You will have taken the moral code out of the subjective world and said , in effect, " this particular moral code is a brute fact , it is true , like gravity is true".
This then traps you because if you don't say the moral code is a brute fact or rooted in reality then by implication it must belong to the world of human opinion and subjective imagination.
So , simply put , how are you able to say that my killing someone for fun is ACTUALLY wrong? You can say that in your opinion it is a "given" that it is wrong or even that many people would think that it is a "given" that it is wrong. But all this would mean is that my opinion that it is not a given is unpopular with many.
This becomes a problem because if we say that certain things are a given because many people believe them then God's existence must be a given.
In short you can have axioms if you like but if you don't root them in an external reality of some sort then how can you say that your axiom is more valid then my axiom?