Originally posted by vistesd
Whether one is talking about textual (scriptural) revelation or some personal revelation (visions, epiphanies, etc.), one must apply one’s own intelligence to determine whether the revelatory content is really intelligible and intelligent (makes sense). Also to determine whether such revelation (again, however manifest) can, in fact, be called revelation. ...[text shortened]... or you in your life—without necessarily contending that it must mean “just this” or “just that”.
Ok. I think I understand what you're saying. So rather than replying to any one particular point, I will attempt to expound a bit more on what I'm driving at.
In the verse cited Jesus thanks the Father for doing something. That being the hiding of something, and the revealing of something.
That something, it seems, is some truth or another. The point being, it is revealed rather than simply discovered by ones' own powers of intellect. This is not to say, as you said, that one does not employ ones' own intellegence to the meaning of that revelation.
But still, the verse seems to suggest that the degree of intellect is not a prerequisite to recieving a revelation.
So then, it appears that a truth that cannot otherwise be known must be revealed by the revelator to be known.
Applying this idea then to the whole of scripture is not to say that the scripture is not knowable in it's content, but rather that there is a depth to it which is hid from the intellect, and relealed in/to the spirit.
Your thoughts please.