Originally posted by robbie carrobie
wait a minute, right here! you have made the jump, in terms of spiritual understanding, to light speed. how does it equate that calling Christ lord, suddenly makes him, the almighty, for this is a term that has never once been used with anyone, not Christ, not anyone but the most high himself.
perhaps you can post the text so that we may have a look at it.
I suspect the question hinges on when “lord” (Hebrew:
adon/adonai; Greek:
kyrios) refers to YHVH, and when it is just a title of respect.
Whenever we see “LORD” in caps, for instance, that word does not appear in the text; what is in the text is YHVH. When pronunciation of that name was prohibited, religious Jews started substituting
Adonai in formal readings from the Torah, in prayer, etc. Outside such formal usages, they do not as often use Adonai, but substitute other terms (such as
Hashem—literally “the name”, but also used in direct address; Hashem is how my Orthodox version,
The Stone Edition Tanach, “translates” YHVH).
But, at other times, “lord” does not refer to YHVH at all. For example—
Numbers 11:28
1st Kings 1:24 & 36
And, where you can clearly see the distinction, in Psalm 110:1—“The Lord said to my lord…” (JPS translation). In the Hebrew, it is “
nem YHVH l’adonai”: “Says YHVH to my lord…”.
It’s a bit like Freud’s reply to the woman who commented on his cigar in the context of his (in)famous phallic symbols. “Sometimes, madam,” he said, “it’s just a cigar.”
Trinitarians do not see the references to Jesus as
kyrios being just a title of respect (though, I think it may still be among Greeks), but as a linking of Jesus to the usage of adonai as a substitute for YHVH.
I’ll let you guys battle it out, but I think your challenge is certainly valid.