1. Standard memberRJHinds
    The Near Genius
    Fort Gordon
    Joined
    24 Jan '11
    Moves
    13644
    20 Apr '11 06:12
    Originally posted by ThinkOfOne
    You certainly are a snippy one.

    I'm quite aware that "The whole Hebrew and Greek original
    text did not use quotation marks." If you read my post, you'll see that I said, "It's my understanding that the original text does not include quotation marks."
    Sorry, I misunderstood your meaning. I thought you meant that
    quotation marks should not be used in the Enlish translation
    because there was none in the original lamguage.
  2. Standard memberRJHinds
    The Near Genius
    Fort Gordon
    Joined
    24 Jan '11
    Moves
    13644
    20 Apr '11 06:23
    Originally posted by RJHinds
    Yes you gave me one; but if you look closely at the beginning of
    the verses it does not seem to match the original Greek. It looks
    like something was added to the beginning of the verses to
    make it appear to be a comment. Look at the reference below
    giving the original Greek and the English below it and compare the
    translations. Then click on over to v ...[text shortened]... added
    something to make it agree with his belief.

    http://interlinearbible.org/john/3-17.htm
    I meant to include verses 16 and 19 in there, because of
    the way these two verses are translated in that translation
    it makes it appear more like a comment than a quote. But
    even if you are right that Jesus did not say this, does that
    really make much difference unless you believe the writer
    was not John, but someone who did not know much about
    Jesus?
  3. Joined
    15 Oct '06
    Moves
    10115
    24 Apr '11 17:174 edits
    Originally posted by RJHinds
    I meant to include verses 16 and 19 in there, because of
    the way these two verses are translated in that translation
    it makes it appear more like a comment than a quote. But
    even if you are right that Jesus did not say this, does that
    really make much difference unless you believe the writer
    was not John, but someone who did not know much about
    Jesus?
    You seem to be of the mindset that if you find something (no matter how irrelevant or false) negative to say, that you've "proven" something. Even in this short discussion there have already been several instances of this. One would think that you'd at least try to comprehend what was written and try to give a considered response. Instead it seems more like flailing in desperation.

    Surely if you look back at the discussion thus far, you'll know this to be true. What gives?
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