Originally posted by robbie carrobie
I am sorry that makes no sense. It appears to me and probably anyone with even a modicum of discernment that Paul was drawing a correlation between the homosexual behaviour of the males and that of the females, likewise, as in like manner. Concise, elegant and completely sound in contrast yo your dog-eared and vain attempt to evade reality.
Again, look at the passage.
"That is why God gave them over to uncontrolled sexual passion, for their females changed the natural use of themselves into one contrary to nature likewise also the males left the natural use of the female and became violently inflamed in their lust toward one another, males with males,working what is obscene and receiving in themselves the full penalty,which was due for their error. - Romans 1:26-27."
The first sentence references "natural use of themselves," not others. With males, the passage goes to uses of others. So basically, women are having sex with themselves, and men are having sex with other men, so men and women aren't having sex together. That's how it reads to me. Nothing about women have sex with women.