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What happened to my 'repetitive move draw' th...

What happened to my 'repetitive move draw' th...

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Originally posted by tomtom232
sometimes the best moves for one player( the "winning" player) allow the other player to get perpetual because if the first player played anything else they would lose the game.
Agreed

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Originally posted by tomtom232
*pulls out gun* *bang bang* tomtom232: I can't kill it. It just keeps coming. *bang bang* tomtom232:aaahhhhh!! *thread eats tomtom232 alive* *munch munch*
Tom Tom turns around!

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Originally posted by MontyMoose
er.... in a KvK endgame which is the inferior side?
The side without the opposition!😛

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Originally posted by mnelson
Hmm, if you're implying that I should agree that the timeout rule is unfair, you're wrong.

The timeout rule is fine. Why? Because it ends the game in a FORFEIT not a DRAW. The repetitive position rule should also end in a forfeit.
Which player should forfeit?

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Originally posted by tomtom232
sometimes the best moves for one player(the "winning" player) allow the other player to get perpetual because if the first player played anything else they would lose the game.
In which case they're not exactly "winning", are they?

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Originally posted by pimpsandwich
Which player should forfeit?
The person that forced the repetition. In other words, the person that created the first of the three repetitions.

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That is, the person that created the first of the three repeated positions. Sorry.

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Originally posted by mtthw
In which case they're not exactly "winning", are they?
They are on the "winning" side of a draw because if the other player plays the second best move because he missed the perpetual then the first player would have a winning game and your post just makes my point more clear.

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Originally posted by mnelson
That is, the person that created the first of the three repeated positions. Sorry.
In which case, in the game you quoted, you would have lost.

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Originally posted by mnelson
That is, the person that created the first of the three repeated positions. Sorry.
Any move a player makes could be the first of a three fold repetition.

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Originally posted by Dragon Fire
In which case, in the game you quoted, you would have lost.
Uh, no.

Maybe my wording is unclear, but white's 25 move is the first of the three.

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Originally posted by mnelson
Uh, no.

Maybe my wording is unclear, but white's 25 move is the first of the three.
So you see this is where we have a problem with you so called rule. Whites 25th move was Qxh6 removing a pawn so the position was never dynamically the same thereafter.

The first move that is made with an identical position is Kg8 by black as after Qg6+ the position differs from that earlier as there in now no pawn on h6. So Kg8 is the first of the repeated moves.

The fact that it is also the only move and white plays the best move thereafter is of no relevance but merely shows the futility of your suggestion. Suppose black could stop the repetition by interposing and losing his Queen (and thereby the game) - should he be required to make this inferior losing move?

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Originally posted by Dragon Fire
... so the position was never dynamically the same thereafter.
Never "dynamically the same"? Isn't that an oxymoron?

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What about Dodge Ram?

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Originally posted by pimpsandwich
What about Dodge Ram?
are you making a point a joke or both?