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A General Argument from Evil.

A General Argument from Evil.

Spirituality

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Let's review Coletti, because you are accusing me of taking things out of context.

DoctorScribbles was questioning how it was just and fair that God can kill with impunity
but the Judeo-Christian people were obligated not to kill. It is a legitimate question,
but one which has several theological answers. You provided one when you said:

I think the problem is simply solved by understanding that the commandments were made by God to man. And it helps to know that God is talking about unwarranted killing, murder, because God does not contradict himself.

All that God does is by definition good. So for God to break his commandment is silly - God does not make the rules for himself, he makes them for us.


Had you ended your post there, I never would have commented, because it is a
legitimate argument (I don't find it compelling, but that is another matter).

However, you continued, and this is the source of my theological discontent. You wrote:

It may help to adjust your perspective. Contrast your position to Gods. Imagine God, the creator of the universe, even noticing you. To expect God to even give you a moment's thought is the height of arrogance. That God should not snuff us all out like the annoying insects that we are is a wonder. What can mankind show for itself that it should deserve God to even glance our way? What have we to show for ourselves, to gain favor from the Almighty God and Creator?

Enter 'Reform Theology.' DoctorScibbles made no such claims that the acts of people
are worthy or that they are made important by them in the sight of God, much less that
by actions we can command respect. This notion entered the fray by your hand,
from your mind. It is objectionable on the grounds that I wrote. Sentence by
sentence, starting at the third one:

1) God does indeed notice His Creation, the bearers of His Image;
2) Christians can expect that thinks about them, for He loves them by assurance of His Word.
It is not arrogant to assume that God will fulfill His promise;
3) It is not a 'wonder' that God does not snuff out His Creation, for He loves it to the depths
of His essence. His Creation is, by virture of bearing His Image and by virtue of being objects
of His Perfect Love, not an 'annoying insect;' and,
4/5) No one made any claims about being worthy of God's attention until your post. So, you
were creating this mighty strawman that didn't exist until your post brought it to the fore.

Let's continue. You wrote:

Anyone who criticizes God's actions is evidencing the pride and total depravity that is man's true nature. To paraphrase the apostle Paul, all the good deeds of man are nothing more than [b]a pile of crap. Now, scribbles, you are a little flea, amongst billions of fleas, holding up you personal pile of crap, and saying to God, "see, I am worthy or your respect." [/b]

This paragraph was what, understandably, let me to conclude that you were suggesting
a limited or non-existent worth for humankind. Point by point:

1) Pride and total depravity are not 'man's true nature,' as I discussed. Being made in
God's most perfect image, our essential (or 'true'😉 nature is not one of depravity, but
one of perfection. It is through sin that humankind stains itself and ought to strive to
wash itself clean in the Blood of the Lamb;
2) St Paul indeed told his brethren to be on watch for the sin of pride, to avoid being
a Pharisee who revels in his actions. St Paul also said:

Therefore, from the day we heard this, we do not cease praying for you and asking
that you may be filled with the knowledge of his will through all spiritual wisdom and
understanding to live in a manner worthy of the Lord, so as to be fully pleasing,
in every good work bearing fruit and growing the knowledge of God, stregthened with
every power, in accord with his glorious might, for all endurance and patience, with joy
giving thanks to the Father, who has made you fit to share in the inheritance of the
holy ones in light.
Colossians 1:9-12

Also, confer with 2 Thessalonians 1:3-12.

Christians should be rejoicing that they are worthy, but not be prideful. They ought not
to believe that they are worthy by their actions, but nonetheless strive to make themselves
worthy, not because they can, but because they ought. As such, there ought to be an
emphasis on deeds, not because of the awards they confer (they confer none), but because
it is a duty. They are not 'piles of crap' in the sight of God; they are humble offerings,
representations of True Christian duty.

3) DoctorScibbles made no such claims of being worthy or that God should notice him. That
you thought he said this is the product of your fertile imagination.

But that's OK scribs. We all have our moments of self delusion. I am a flea too, with my pile of crap, often wishing it was worthy. I may think I understand God’s mind a little better than you do. But if I begin to see myself as top flea with the biggest pile of crap, well, it’s not saying much. It's hard to maintain a proper perspective.

Again, that you or any of God's Creation -- which He loves with that Perfect love which can
come only from God -- is a 'flea' is poor theology. That your works are 'piles of crap' is
poor theology. These are all products of a self-deprecating theology which has no basis in
Christian theology. They derive from St Paul's (right) admonitions to avoid pride -- pride
through being better, smarter, more active, more holy, or doing more works. Humility is
indeed a healthy Christian virture. But, that Christians are 'fleas' with 'piles of crap' is a
blatant insult to the height of God's Creation. By describing oneself as a 'flea' with 'piles
of crap,' you are making a comparative statement with God (and, to boot, you place the
angels below us; what are they, ticks?). You are making a statement about worth.
Christians ought to (rightly) believe that they are not 'fleas,' just humble servants working
as hard as they can to do Godly justice in their imperfect way on earth.

I hope that this longer, clearer post expresses more fully my objections to your statements
in the context of Christian belief. It has never been my intent to misrepresent you, but,
as you can see above, your statements are either unclear (if you agree with my objections)
or theologically untenable (if you maintain your claims).

I do not know why you feel this great need to be insulting. I should hope that you can avoid
this blantantly unChristian behavior in the future discussion of this issue.

Nemesio

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Originally posted by Nemesio
...
Christians ought to (rightly) believe that they are not 'fleas,'...
Just a side note... In my churchgoing youth, the lyric of 'Amazing Grace' starting being sung as "such a wretch as I" as an alternative to the orignal wording "such a worm as I."

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Originally posted by Paul Dirac
Just a side note... In my churchgoing youth, the lyric of 'Amazing Grace' starting being sung as "such a wretch as I" as an alternative to the orignal wording "such a worm as I."
What you are recalling is the second line of the first stanza:

Amazing grace, how sweet the sound
that saved a wretch like me!
I once was lost, but now am found;
was blind, but now I see.

I've never heard the variation that you cite, but I've heard one
that 'softens' Newton's text that reads '...how sweet the sound
that saved and set me free.

Nemesio

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Originally posted by Paul Dirac
Just a side note... In my churchgoing youth, the lyric of 'Amazing Grace' starting being sung as "such a wretch as I" as an alternative to the orignal wording "such a worm as I."
😉

Worm, flea, roach, amoeba, dung heap, - it's all a matter of a proper perspective. 😀 But any unworthy person who thinks they have infinite worth might take offense.

Come on bbarr!!! We need to get back on topic. Nemo and I have hijack this thread long enough. I suppose others are tired of it. Can't blame them. How close are you to posting your defense of premise (2)? Looking forwarded to it.

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Originally posted by Coletti
But any unworthy person who thinks they have infinite worth might take offense.
By all means, start another thread and discuss the concerns I raised in my last post.
I have no vested interest in its being in this thread.

And, a Christian ought not 'think' that s/he has infinite worth. S/he ought to believe
it, as it is conferred, by promise, through the love of God.

Please, start a new thread. I look forward to it.

Nemesio

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Originally posted by Coletti
😉

Worm, flea, roach, amoeba, dung heap, - it's all a matter of a proper perspective. 😀 But any unworthy person who thinks they have infinite worth might take offense.

Come on bbarr!!! We need to get back on topic. Nemo and I have hijack this thread long enough. I suppose others are tired of it. Can't blame them. How close are you to posting your defense of premise (2)? Looking forwarded to it.
Alright, alright! I'm over three pages into my defense of premise (2), but the end is in sight. I'll post it within the next 12 hours. You people, you've been waiting for the second coming for 2,000 years but you can't wait a few days for an argument! 😉

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"It all depends on definitions and most definitions only use words to describe the object of definition. Words are inherently more or less vague. Therefore definitions using words are inherently more or less vague. Reasoning based on definitions using words is therefore vague. Conclusions reached using vague reasoning must be necessarily vague. Therefore reasoning based on definitions using words suffers more or less from the Falacy of Vagueness or Ambiguity and must therefore be looked upon with a wagonload of scepticism."

Philosophers, or philosophers to be, trying to reason in a way described above, must therefore be looked upon with a wagonload of scientific scepticism and professional suspicion.



Bbarr, your reaction a while ago to the above reasoning was very funny, but may I hope you are going to adress its validity in a more professional way ?

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Originally posted by ivanhoe

"It all depends on definitions and most definitions only use words to describe the object of definition. Words are inherently more or less vague. Therefore definitions using words are inherently more or less vague. Reasoning based on definitions using words is therefore vague. Conclusions reached using vague reasoning must be necessarily vague. Therefore ...[text shortened]... s very funny, but may I hope you are going to adress its validity in a more professional way ?
Stop it ivanhoe. Let the man think. We can go after his definitions after he post's his work on premise (2).

I wonder if we are contributing to a doctoral thesis? Do we get any biblio-credit? 😉

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Originally posted by ivanhoe

"It all depends on definitions and most definitions only use words to describe the object of definition. Words are inherently more or less vague. Therefore definitions using words are inherently more or less vague. Reasoning based on definitions using words is therefore vague. Conclusions reached using vague reasoning must be necessarily vague. Therefore ...[text shortened]... s very funny, but may I hope you are going to adress its validity in a more professional way ?
Ivanhoe,

My comment, while meant to be humorous, was also a serious response to your argument. You are correct that words are vague, in that we cannot give necessary and sufficient conditions for when something is properly called a 'chair', or a 'bachelor'. The problem is harder when the terms denote concepts that are more complex, like 'love', or 'knowledge', or 'virtue', or... But just because our terms are vague because the concepts they denot are vague, it does not follow that we cannot be confident in the vast majority of circumstances that we are using them correctly. Just because I cannot give you necessary and sufficient conditions for something's being a chair, it does not follow that I cannot use the term 'chair' in a manner precise enough for my purposes. If you want to take a globally skeptical stance concerning arguumentation based upon the vagueness of words, then your own argument will be self-refuting in that if you are correct, I will thereby have no reason to believe your argument establishes what you conclude. Then again, if your argument is incorrect, I will also have no reason to believe what you conclude. So, regardless of whether your argument is correct, I have no reason to believe it. This is what happens when you take globally skeptical stances. It is as if you argued thus: We have no reason to believe that the rules of inference, when applied correctly, take us from true premises to true conclusions, hence, we have no reason to believe our conclusions follow from our premises. If you argued like that, and if you were correct, your correctness would undermine your very own argument, thereby giving me no reason to accept it. So, in short, if you want me to take seriously your point, you are going to have to modify your argument so that it doesn't have skeptical conclusions so radical that your own argument is undermined.

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Originally posted by Coletti
Stop it ivanhoe. Let the man think. We can go after his definitions after he post's his work on premise (2).

I wonder if we are contributing to a doctoral thesis? Do we get any biblio-credit? 😉
O.K., here we go:

Before I begin my defense of premise (2), I'd like everybody to think carefully about what (2) claims. All (2) is claiming that there has occurred, at least once, an instance of suffering that was not logically necessary for the greater good.

Recall that by 'greater good' here, I'm not adopting any particular ethical theory. I am presuming that moral nihilism (metaphysical moral skepticism) is false, but other than that, the theists to whom the argument is directed are free to construe 'greater good' in accord with their Divine Command (DC) theories, Natural Law theories (these are the most common theistic ethical theories), or any other ethical theory they may happen to endorse. So, if a theist is a DC theorist, for instance, then he may take the term 'good' to refer to the manifestation of compassion, generosity, etc., or in people's being saved, or in the doing of God's will, or whatever. Minimally, the DC theorist is committed to the claim that X is good if and only if God wills that X, but there will be room for disagreement amongst DC theorists as to the content of God's will (e.g., conservative interpreters of the bible may disagree with liberal interpretations of the bible). Nothing in my original argument, nor in my defense of (2) will presuppose a position on such “in-house' disputes.

Interestingly, nobody who responded to the original argument rejected premise (5), that God, in virtue of being morally perfect, would want to prevent any suffering logically unnecessary for the greater good. So, I will presume henceforth that theists are, by and large, committed to the following principle:

BUS (Badness of unnecessary suffering): God takes it to be morally preferable that creatures do not unnecessarily suffer, and acts accordingly.

If any theists are now tempted to demur, and reject BUS (and, hence, premise (5)), I would ask them to think about what they will thereby be committing themselves to. If BUS is rejected, then the theist will be committed to the following claim:

COG (Callousness of God): Given two possible states of affairs, A and B, if A involves more suffering than B, and A and B are equivalent in regards to the goodness they instantiate and/or bring about, God does not take the extra suffering involved in A to weigh in favor of B.

I take it that most theists will think COG runs contrary to God's general beneficence, so I will not pursue this much further. In any case, the endorsement of COG entails that if God exists, he is both morally perfect (by definition) and unmoved by unnecessary suffering. But it is overwhelmingly plausible (if not strictly analytic) that if it is in one's power to effortlessly prevent suffering that is absolutely unnecessary, then one has a moral obligation to prevent such suffering. To fail to do so would be callous by definition, and callousness is ordinarily understood to be incompatible with moral perfection. We ordinary think that if one is callous one is thereby morally defective. Hence, the theist who rejects COG will have to maintain that God is morally perfect in a sense of 'moral' wholly dissimilar to any ordinary sense of 'moral', and this leads one to wonder just what the theist who rejects COG means by the claim that God is morally perfect. Of course, the theist may respond that since the content of morality is determined by what God wills, God cannot fail to be morally perfect. But this claim would mean nothing more than that God wills what he wills, which is tautologous and thereby empty. On such a view, it would be consistent with God's being morally perfect that he fail to abide by his covenants, or engage in indiscriminant torture, or… Such entailments, however, are so antithetical to any plausible sense of 'moral' that to accept them is to be, in a very real way, speaking a different language. Such a view is certainly inconsistent with the general theistic view of God being as a loving father (for what father would fail to prevent suffering unnecessary for the well-being of his children?). Further, such a view would preclude the theist being able to offer to non-believers reasons to believe based upon God's moral perfection (for what non-believer will be swayed by the claim that God is morally perfect albeit unconcerned about unnecessary suffering, unbound by obligations of fidelity, etc.).

Note: Readers familiar with Euthyphro's dilemma will recognize in the foregoing paragraph a form of the argument against the view that God's willing that X is explanatorily prior to the moral rightness of X (or, in common parlance, that God imbues or bestows upon certain acts their moral status).

I will intersperse comments among the steps of the following argument in favor of (2). The comments are meant for purposes of clarification and illustration. The steps of the argument follow from previous steps; they do not depend on the contents of the comments.

So, here we go:

a)Suppose (2) is false.
b)If so, then every instance of suffering is logically necessary for the greater good.
c)Hence, had any instance of suffering not occurred, the world would have thereby been less good than it could have been.


As before, 'less good' here just means 'less morally preferable'. So, a world that is less good would be less morally preferable to God. Since God is morally perfect by definition, it follows that God would prefer a world that is maximally morally preferable and act accordingly. Hence, the actual world is maximally morally preferable; it is the world that is the most good. In short, the actual world is the best of all possible worlds. Astute and bookish readers will recognize that this is the position endorsed by Leibniz and famously lampooned by Voltaire in “Candide” and Mark Twain in “Letters from Earth”.

At this point we should distinguish between suffering brought about by the intentional acts of agents and those brought about by natural forces. The former I will refer to as 'moral evil' and the latter as 'natural evil'. These are the terms commonly used in presentations of the problem of evil, and are used here to facilitate the research of interested parties. As before, the use of these terms is intended to be neutral between non-skeptical ethical theories.

d) Hence, had any instance of moral evil (e.g., murder, rape, theft, deception, etc.) not occurred, the world would thereby have been worse.
e)Further, had any instance of natural evil (e.g., disease, natural disaster, etc.) not occurred, the world would thereby have been worse.


Now, in many cases of moral evil and natural evil there are numerous victims. During Stalin's reign, for instance, some twenty million people were murdered (and that is a conservative estimate). During the 1918 influenza epidemic, some eighteen million people died. I encourage the reader to research the manner in which people were murdered under Stalin, and the manner in which people died during the influenza epidemic, in order to get a sense of the amount of suffering involved.

f)Hence, had any single person who suffered under Stalin's regime (or during the Holocaust, or Rwanda, or currently in Sudan, or any war in history) not suffered, the world would have been worse.
g)Hence, had even one fewer infant had its brains dashed against walls by Nazis; had even one fewer infant been tossed in the air and caught on the point of a bayonet by Cossacks; had even one fewer person been hacked apart by machetes in Rwanda; had even one fewer adolescent girl been raped by paramilitary squads in Darfur, the world would thereby have been worse.
h)Further, had any single person who suffered as a result of the 1918 influenza epidemic (or smallpox, or AIDS, or the recent tsunami or any other natural disaster in history) not suffered, the world would have been worse.
i)Hence, had one fewer child been orphaned by influenza; had one fewer infant been born with AIDS; had one fewer person been battered and broken by the recent tsunami; had one fewer person been buried alive by the earthquakes in Turkey and Iran, the world would have thereby been worse.


I hope this is sufficient to get across the magnitude of the suffering the theist is committed to claiming is logically necessary for the greater good. It is not enough to say, for instance, that the brutality of Stalin's regime, or Hitler's, was logically necessary for some good to obtain. Each instance of suffering under those regimes would have to be individually logically necessary for some good to obtain. In short, it is insufficient for the theist to attempt to explain away the suffering in, say, the Holocaust, by claiming that the Holocaust was instrumental in awakening the world to anti-Semitism, or the horrors of genocide, or whatever. Such a claim could only be maintained if there are good reasons to believe that had even one fewer person fell victim to the Nazis then whatever good the Holocaust engendered would have been, of logical necessity, precluded

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cont.

It is good to keep in mind just what is meant by 'logically necessary' herein. To say that A is logically necessary for B is to claim that had A not been the case, it would have logically impossible for B to be the case. That is, to claim that A is logically necessary for B is to be committed to the claim that a logical contradiction follows from the conjunction of the claims “It is not the case that A” and “It is the case that B”.

To say that A is logically necessary for B is not to claim that A is merely causally responsible for bringing about B. This is important, so I will say it again: logical necessity is not the same as causal efficacy. Here's an example:

Suppose I fall victim to a ravaging disease in virtue of which I suffer physical pain that is both constant and excruciating. Suppose that this pain is causes me to seek comfort in scripture, and I am thereby led to sincerely embrace Jesus Christ as both God and Savior. Now, this situation is one wherein the suffering I experience causes something that all Christian theists will agree is a very good thing. It does not follow from this example that the suffering I experienced was logically necessary for bringing about my conversion. It would only follow that the suffering was logically necessary if it was logically impossible that my conversion be brought about by anything other than this suffering. In other words, in order for this suffering to be logically necessary for my conversion, it has to also be the case that I could not possibly have been converted by experiencing slightly less suffering, or by honest reflection on the available evidence, or by having God himself appear to me and tell me about the sacrifice of his only begotten Son, or…

Now, the theist who rejects premise (2) cannot merely claim that each instance of suffering is causally efficacious in bringing about some good or other. For instance, they cannot merely claim that some instance of suffering, as a matter of fact, brought about some good. They are committed to the much stronger claim that the good brought about by the instance of suffering in question could not have possibly been brought about in any way that involved even slightly less suffering without there being some tradeoff in goods such that the world would be thereby less good, and hence less morally preferable to God. Think carefully about this stronger claim. It entails that given some instance of suffering, the good brought about thereby could not possibly have been brought about, even by the direct intercession of an entity (God) that is both omnipotent and omniscient, without the world thereby being worse. In short, the theist is committed to the claim that every instance of suffering is such that God finds it morally preferable that that suffering occur.

This claim faces two serious objections:

CFW (Conflict with free will): Suppose S tortures, rapes and murders his neighbor. Many theists will claim that since S has free will, he could have chosen to do otherwise. But if the theist rejects premise (2), then it follows that S's torturing, raping and murdering his neighbor was logically necessary for the greater good. Hence, it follows that God finds it morally preferable that S torture, rape and murder his neighbor (else God would have prevented it because he is morally perfect). Hence, God would prevent it from being the case that S not torture, rape and murder his neighbor. Hence, it is logically impossible that S could choose to refrain from torturing, raping and murdering his neighbor. Hence, S cannot choose to refrain from torturing, raping and murdering his neighbor. Hence, S's torturing, raping and murdering his neighbor is the only logically possible option available to S. Hence, in regards to his torturing, raping and murdering his neighbor, S's will is not free.

NOTE: CFW presumes that the sort of freedom of the will that the majority of theists endorse is of the libertarian sort. Those who endorse a compatibilist view of free will are not faced with this consequence of rejecting premise (2). Of course, endorsing a compatibilist version of free will has its own costs (e.g., being committed to the claim that one can be morally responsible for acts that one could not have done otherwise than). I direct interested readers to the “Human Free Will” thread in the Debates forum for an extended discussion of these and related matters.

NPG (No Plausible Goods): There are no plausible goods logically necessitated by the diversity and severity of suffering evident in the actual world. Consider the three basic sorts of goods commonly presented by theists to explain the presence of suffering in the world:

I)Freedom of the Will
II)Virtue or Moral Uprightness
III)Salvation

Let's take these by turn:

Free will is often cited by theists in their explanations of evil. Free will, it is claimed, is itself a substantial good and logically necessary for the presence of other goods (e.g., love, kindness, etc. which are plausibly of more value if chosen freely). But along with having free will comes the capacity to choose between being virtuous and being vicious. So, the moral evil in the world is explained by humans' being free, and the goodness of free will and that which it allows is sufficient to justify the moral evil in the world, that is, to explain why God finds it morally preferable that there be free will even though this brings about things like murder, rape, theft, deception, and so on. It is often claimed that if God were to prevent these sorts of moral evil, then humans would not have free wills.

But this is surely mistaken. First, there is no reason to think that we have free will if God exists and premise (2) is false (see CFW, above). Second, it is not contradictory to suppose that God could have created human beings with slightly more benevolent characters, and thereby be less predisposed towards violence. After all, my sister has a substantially more benevolent character than I, but nobody would suggest that this entails that her will is not free. Third, preventing someone from harming another is not a violation of their free will, but merely the prevention of the successful pursuit of that which they will. For instance, if I come across an attempted rape in progress, and I stop the aggressor, I am not thereby preventing him from willing that he rape, nor am I preventing him from attempting to act in accord with his will. I am merely preventing him from being successful in his pursuit, but this is consistent with his will being free. Being prevented from X-ing by the actions of another agent is equivalent to being prevented from X-ing by virtue of natural laws, as far as the will of the actor is concerned. The actor may freely will that he X (say, that he rape, or levitate), and then fail despite his free choice. But if I can prevent a rapist from being successful at raping without thereby violating the freedom of his will, then God can do the same. Hence, God could have intervened in at least one case of moral evil without violating the freedom of our wills. Hence, explanations of evil the rely on the freedom of the will fail.

Note: As if this weren't bad enough, most Christian theists are committed to the claim that God has intervened to prevent instances of moral evil, as even a cursory examination of the bible will make clear.

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cont.

Theists also often claim that the suffering brought about by moral and natural evil is necessary in order for there to be occasions for virtues such as compassion, generosity, and so on (so-called “second-order goods&rdquo😉. However, such an explanation for evil can only be partial, as these second-order goods will not be able to explain the presence in the world of the variety of second-order evils (e.g., callousness, cruelty, miserliness, jealousy, etc.). Perhaps the theist could posit some third-order good (perhaps being saved, or being fit for the bestowal of grace) to explain these second-order evils. But, of course, there will be third-order evils as well (being damned, unfit for grace), and it is doubtful that the theist will find any higher-order good without an evil analogue. Since no infinite regress of symmetrical higher-order goods and evils will suffice to explain and justify those evils, this response to the problem of evil fails. Further, even if this objection could be overcome, it still is radically implausible that these second-order goods could justify instances of moral or natural evil where the victims are unknown and undiscovered. For instance, there were victims of the recent tsunami (not to mention the historical Chinese flood which killed roughly three million people) that will never be known because either they were not known well enough at the time to be remembered by survivors, or because those who would have remembered them were also victims. Such victims cannot serve as the objects of virtuous states like compassion, of generosity, or even sympathy in any real sense (although we may experience sympathy for 'all the victims', but we would experience this anyway had one unknown victim not been killled, correct?). Hence, their suffering and death cannot be justified by virtue of these second-order goods. The theist may respond that such victims may themselves have an opportunity to manifest some second-order good by virtue of their own suffering, but this overlooks three obvious objections. First, some suffering is of such intensity that victims are completely consumed by it. Second, infants and young children will not, in general, have the emotional or even the conceptual resources necessary for manifesting these second order goods. Third, the suffering of animals (via forest fire, for example) often both leaves no trace (the bodies are consumed or hidden), thus providing no opportunity for anybody to manifest a second-order good, and brings about no manifestation of second-order goods among the victims themselves ('cause they lack the intellectual hardware).

Finally, theists often claim that the suffering experienced in the world is more than made up for by the joy experienced during the afterlife. First, such a response seems to misconstrue the argument, as the problem facing the theist is not to show that suffering gets made up for by future joy, but to show that suffering is logically necessary to bring about the greater good. After all, if God gets to decide who goes to heaven, then it will be logically possible that God could decide, for any person at all, that that person goes to heaven. But if this is logically possible, then whatever suffering they endured was not logically necessary for their salvation, because regardless of what suffering they had endured, God could choose to save them. Second, unless animals also go to heaven, such a response will be unable to deal with the prevalence of animal suffering. Further, this response would only apply to those who, as a matter of fact, get saved, but presumably the suffering of those who will not be saved is also of concern to God ('cause he loves us all). Hence, this response fails.

So, the three major sorts of good theists commonly employ in their explanations of moral and natural evil all fail. But then what candidate goods are left? Without an account of these justificatory goods, the theist's explanation for moral and natural evil amounts to nothing more than “something(s) or other is(are) such that it(they) is(are) both good and logically necessitated by moral and natural evil”. But, of course, this is not an explanation, but a mere promissory note.

In summary, rejection of premise (2) commits the theist to the claim that this is the best of all possible worlds, and that every instance of suffering, no matter how horrendous, is logically necessary (not just causally responsible) for the greater good. But this entails that libertarian freedom of the will is impossible. Further, when pressed concerning just what the greater good is that is necessitated by all the moral and natural evil in the world, the theist's three most plausible answers fail.

O.K., that's what I have so far. I'm going to take a couple days break from this debate and work on my dissertation. Hopefully, by the time I return some sort of general pattern of objection has arisen, so that I can address your forthcoming criticisms wholesale.

Bennett

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Originally posted by bbarr
Ivanhoe,

My comment, while meant to be humorous, was also a serious response to your argument. You are correct that words are vague, in that we cannot give necessary and sufficient conditions for when something is properly called a 'cha ...[text shortened]... tical conclusions so radical that your own argument is undermined.
Bbarr: " It is as if you argued thus: We have no reason to believe that the rules of inference, when applied correctly, take us from true premises to true conclusions, hence, we have no reason to believe our conclusions follow from our premises."

Absolutely not. I do NOT reason in the way you are presenting here. This is an example of the Fallacy of Strawmenreasoning ..... and besides that it is a perfect example of the Fallacy of False Analogy of which you incorrectly claim it doesn't exist. You could even call it the Fallacy of "Changing the Subject".



BBarr: "If you want to take a globally skeptical stance concerning arguumentation based upon the vagueness of words, then your own argument will be self-refuting in that if you are correct, I will thereby have no reason to believe your argument establishes what you conclude."

Bbarr: "So, in short, if you want me to take seriously your point, you are going to have to modify your argument so that it doesn't have skeptical conclusions so radical that your own argument is undermined."


The heart of the matter lies in whether the words and terms used in my and your reasoning are "more or less vague". Please look at the words you are using in your definitions and notice how vague they are. The words I am using in my reasoning are not that vague at all. They are very down to earth. That's why credence can be given to my reasoning and that's why no credence or truth value can be given to ANY conclusion you will reach.

My argument does not fall short looking at the fallacy of Vagueness or Ambiguity because the words I use are not that vague. The words you use in your reasoning are extremely vague and therefore your reasoning and conclusions are not credible in any way.



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Originally posted by ivanhoe
Bbarr: " It is as if you argued thus: We have no reason to believe that the rules of inference, when applied correctly, take us from true premises to true conclusions, hence, we have no reason to believe our conclusions follow from our pr ...[text shortened]... our reasoning and conclusions are not credible in any way.



Ivanhoe,

This is what you wrote originally:

"Words are inherently more or less vague. Therefore definitions using words are inherently more or less vague. Reasoning based on definitions using words is therefore vague. Conclusions reached using vague reasoning must be necessarily vague. Therefore reasoning based on definitions using words suffers more or less from the Falacy of Vagueness or Ambiguity and must therefore be looked upon with a wagonload of scepticism."

Now, this argument has exactly the same structure as a global skeptical argument of the sort I mentioned above. The structure is like this:

1) If a process of reasoning has a certain property, then we ought to be skeptical about the conclusion of that process.

2) Our processes of reasoning have this property.

3) Hence we ought to be skeptical about the conclusions of our processes of reasoning

The property you identified was the vagueness of the definitions of terms used in our processes of reasoning. The property I brought up in the example was different, but the structure of your argument and my example are the same. They both take the form outlined above. This is why my example is relevantly analogous to your argument.

Both your argument and my example fall prey to the same type of objection. The objection goes like this:

A) The argument you have presented is itself a process of reasoning.

B) Hence, the argument you have presented has the property you mentioned.

This follows from the second premise in the argument outline above

C) Hence, we ought to be skeptical about the conclusion of your argument.

This follows from the first premise in the argument outline above, together with premise B of this objection, via the inference rule modus ponens.

It doesn't matter whether the property in question concerns the vagueness of key terms or the extent to which inferences preserve the truth when applied correctly. The point is that any argument of this form, advocating a generally skeptical conclusion, will end up undermining itself.

One more thing: Your objection here seems to be that the words used in my definitions are vague to a problematic extent. I disagree. I think they have been suitably clarified in the preceding pages, and that we are all pretty clear now as to what the terms I'm using mean. Remember that some key terms are meant to be neutral (not vague) between different ethical theories. This is why I don't have to define the term 'moral', for instance, because the people reading the argument get to use their own definitions in place of terms like 'morally preferable', 'greater good', and so on. If you see some key term in either my definitions or my argument that you don't understand or that strikes you as problematically vague, please let me know.

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Originally posted by bbarr

So, the three major sorts of good theists commonly employ in their explanations of moral and natural evil all fail. But then what candidate goods are left? Without an account of these justificatory goods, the theist's explanation for moral and natural evil amounts to nothing more than “something(s) or other is(are) such that it(they) is(are) both good and ...[text shortened]... and natural evil”. But, of course, this is not an explanation, but a mere promissory note.
Thanks for the nice presentation. I will have to mull it over some, but upon first glance I think your reduction of the rejection of premise (2) to the described promissory note accurately depicts a rationalized sort of faith.

That is, until you can show that there is no such something, a person of such a faith is not required to accept that his belief is incompatible with reality; for it should be possible, even expected, that man would not be able to enumerate all the sorts of logically-necessitated-by-evil goods that God would know about. That is, you have not demonstrated that the note holds no value.

I anticipate that you will rebut this by calling it skepticism, but I think a good bit of skeptical leeway needs to be permitted when dealing with "big" concepts like omniscience and omnipotence. To prohibit a non-omnisicent being from believing that an omniscient being would know things that the non-omniscient being cannot even conceive of is to misuse and misanalyze the concept of omniscience.

In short, your argument is certainly persuasive, but you have left a convenient loophole for a theist who wants to rationalize his faith by employing a dash of skepticism. Can you sever this loophole? Do you require a full rejection of skepticism in order to do it?

Dr. S

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