22 Sep '05 13:57>1 edit
Originally posted by bbarrNo, loving God does not entail loving his creation, unless you take God to be identical to His creation. If so, then loving God entails loving everything about His creation.
[b]The act of loving God also entails loving His Creation. In order to be truly free to love God, one must also be free to love His Creation. Conversely, in order to be truly free to reject God, one must also be free to do those acts that would be displeasing to God - including violating His Creation. This does not make the act any less evil (because 'evil' ...[text shortened]... s disanalogous to fluid dynamics. God can choose which "ripples" effect which "fishes".[/b]
No, I am not taking God to be identical to His Creation.
To love God is to love that being whose essence is Existence itself. All beings derive their existence by participation in that Divine Essence. To love God is to love Creation because all things that exist reflect His Essence.
It is similar to the case where one loves one's brother's/sister's children precisely because they are one's brother's/sister's children.
If so, then loving God entails loving things like pestilence, disease and starvation.
Which is only true if they were created. Take starvation, for instance. Starvation does not have being - it is the absence of something that does (food). IIRC, these are called 'privations' in classical metaphysics.
Further, you have provided no reason for thinking that the ability to freely love God necessarily brings with it the ability to choose to do any sort of evil.
The ability to freely love God implies the ability to freely reject Him. The ability to freely reject Him implies the ability to freely choose those actions that that constitute such rejection - in other words, evil.
Love cannot said to be 'free' if one cannot act on that love. Same with rejection.
Yes, and I’ve already pointed out repeatedly your rudimentary logical error in that thread.
No. You've said that an error exists, you've not actually demonstrated it. To be precise (and please feel free to resurrect that thread to continue the discussion), you've given me no reason to think that the function M() cannot have a fixed point.
No, this is false. Human character stems from genetic endowment, uterine environment, early experience, and the feedback from choices and actions.
We are talking about human character as 'empirical facts' here. Empirically, you can only determine what a person's character is by looking at his/her choices and actions. You cannot know any person's intrinsic character but your own.
So, quite simply, you do not know (at least as far as initial acts of good/evil go) that it was easier for your sister to choose good than it was for you.
First, if man had dominion both legal and spiritual dominion over Eden, then God has no right to cast man from Eden.
I said "spiritual dominion over Nature in Eden", not "spiritual dominion over Eden". Btw, I do not think Eden was a literal place; but a state of the human soul.
Second, God had it within his power to ensure that the transgression in Eden would not result in harm befalling those innocent of the transgression. Third, the assertion that it is something like a natural law that “man offends, man suffers”, ignores that God is causally responsible for the obtaining of said law and that God could have restricted the application of the law only to those morally responsible for the transgression.
Both of these objections are really the same. Man's dominion over Nature cannot be said to exist unless Nature reflects what Man does to it and himself. Hence, the "natural law" mentioned above is nothing but existence itself applied to that dominion.
God can choose which "ripples" effect which "fishes".
Yes, he can - but he won't unless Man asks him to and it leads to a better state of affairs.