Originally posted by josephw Have you heard about this case? Great answer from the judge!
Considering that the joke is only mildly funny and clearly prejudiced in nature it is rather unchristian of you to be telling it. Luckily it actually only serves to show how some Christians are willing to talk any amount of nonsense just to help themselves feel better about their irrational position.
There are so many things wrong with the story that it also shows that Christians often do not take to much notice of logic or common sense when telling or listening to stories relating to faith but that should not come as a surprise considering that much of the Bible contains similar stories that don't stand up to even basic scrutiny.
For example a day (not public holiday) celebrated by Christians to celebrate fools (atheists) is hardly an atheist holiday anymore than easter is a rabbit holiday or Christmas a holiday for Father Christmas.
The real reason why atheists do not have holidays that are specifically atheist is because atheism is not a religion or belief and thus atheist are not a group of people with common beliefs the only thing they all have in common is a lack of belief. Its just like there is no single theist holiday as in a holiday celebrated by all theists whatever their religion.
Originally posted by twhitehead Considering that the joke is only mildly funny and clearly prejudiced in nature it is rather unchristian of you to be telling it. Luckily it actually only serves to show how some Christians are willing to talk any amount of nonsense just to help themselves feel better about their irrational position.
There are so many things wrong with the story that it ...[text shortened]... is no single theist holiday as in a holiday celebrated by all theists whatever their religion.
But ar'nt you glad you have us irrational, noncommon-sensical religious folk who have created holidays for you to sit at home on your blessed assurance? What would they do without us?
This raises another interesting question. The Mosaic law first introduced the idea of a day of rest. Would there even be any today if it were not for this precident? Do you not think it important for you quality of life today?
Originally posted by whodey But ar'nt you glad you have us irrational, noncommon-sensical religious folk who have created holidays for you to sit at home on your blessed assurance? What would they do without us?
The majority of public holidays here in South Africa are not religious ones.
The major worldwide Christian holidays fall on days that were pagan festivals.
This raises another interesting question. The Mosaic law first introduced the idea of a day of rest. Would there even be any today if it were not for this precident? Do you not think it important for you quality of life today? Do you really think that Mosaic law introduced the 7 day week? I very much doubt it.
In fact a quick look at http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Week and I find that the Hindus, Babylonians and Chinese all had 7 day weeks and that none of them got it from the Mosaic law.
I think you will find that the names of the week days and months are not Christian (or Jewish) in origin either.
Originally posted by twhitehead The majority of public holidays here in South Africa are not religious ones.
The major worldwide Christian holidays fall on days that were pagan festivals.
[b]This raises another interesting question. The Mosaic law first introduced the idea of a day of rest. Would there even be any today if it were not for this precident? Do you not think it imp ...[text shortened]... find that the names of the week days and months are not Christian (or Jewish) in origin either.
I did'nt ask if they had 7 day weeks, rather, I am asking if the Mosaic law was the first to mandate a day of rest within that 7 day stretch within the ancient world.
Originally posted by whodey I did'nt ask if they had 7 day weeks, rather, I am asking if the Mosaic law was the first to mandate a day of rest within that 7 day stretch within the ancient world.
Where did you hear that? Taking the OP as an example, you can understand why I'm skeptical if it's something you heard in church.
Secondly, any judge that said this would be fired on the spot, I would hope. If not, then the condition the world is in is enough to turn me to suicide.
Originally posted by telerion Where did you hear that? Taking the OP as an example, you can understand why I'm skeptical if it's something you heard in church.
I did not hear it anywhere. I just got to thinking, I know of no other precident for a day of rest in the ancient world. You had despot kings and rulers who had essentially slave labor 24/7. What interest would they have in giving people a day of rest?
Originally posted by doodinthemood Firstly, workers day is secular.
Secondly, any judge that said this would be fired on the spot, I would hope. If not, then the condition the world is in is enough to turn me to suicide.
Christmas is secular as well. Or at least in most respects yet its origins seem to be otherwise. We essentially reep the rewards of those of faith who have gone before us whether we be people of faith or not.
Originally posted by whodey I did not hear it anywhere. I just got to thinking, I know of no other precident for a day of rest in the ancient world. You had despot kings and rulers who had essentially slave labor 24/7. What interest would they have in giving people a day of rest?
Uhm . . . isn't that rather weak grounds from which to make a historical claim. While it seems unlikely that slaves would be given a day of rest, it is entirely plausible that some other culture had a day of rest for its citizens (e.g. a holy day during which to perform religious rituals). Given that this is just a personal hunch of yoeurs, wouldn't it make more sense to say that Judaism may have been the origin of the first day of rest?
The Bible says that "the fool has said in his heart that there is no God." Calling someone a "fool" is an ad hominem attack, which is a basic logical fallacy. In God's defense, maybe (S)he never got around to taking Logic 101.
Originally posted by gaychessplayer The Bible says that "the fool has said in his heart that there is no God." Calling someone a "fool" is an ad hominem attack, which is a basic logical fallacy. In God's defense, maybe (S)he never got around to taking Logic 101.
I would venture a guess that your apologetics are a tad bit rusty. 😛
Originally posted by telerion Uhm . . . isn't that rather weak grounds from which to make a historical claim. While it seems unlikely that slaves would be given a day of rest, it is entirely plausible that some other culture had a day of rest for its citizens (e.g. a holy day during which to perform religious rituals). Given that this is just a personal hunch of yoeurs, wouldn't it make more sense to say that Judaism may have been the origin of the first day of rest?