Originally posted by Andrew Hamilton
Now you are just trying to deflect attention from the fact that I have just exposed your false claim of what I said as a lie and deflect attention by making yet another false claim about what I said;
I didn't say/imply, in the context of probability, that “ 1 is equal to 100%. “ is false and you know it.
Probability vs. Odds, Explained
Date: 03/21/2002 at 21:22:50
From: Brett
Subject: Odds in favor
There is one coin with heads on one side and tails on the other. We
have to find out the odds in favor of getting heads and the odds
against. I think the odds in favor and against are the same, 1 out of
2 times, but my teacher said the odds in favor are 1 out of 1. I
don't understand. Could you please explain this to me?
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Date: 03/21/2002 at 23:15:56
From: Doctor Twe
Subject: Re: Odds in favor
Hi Brett - thanks for writing to Dr. Math.
Let me clarify the difference between probability and odds. The
probability of an event is defined as:
(Chances for)
P(x) = ---------------
(Total chances)
So, for example, the probability of drawing an ace in a single deck of
52 cards is 4/52 = 1/13 (or about 0.077 = 7.7 % ).
Odds, on the other hand, are given as:
(Chances for) : (Chances against)
Incidentally, odds of 1:1 would be read as "one TO one", not "one OUT
OF one." (The words "out of" seem to imply total chances, which is
probability, not odds.)
Since (Total chances) = (Chances for) + (Chances against), we can
calculate (Chances against) = (Total chances) - (Chances for). The
odds of drawing an ace in a deck of cards is 4 : (52-4) = 4:48 = 1:12.
Notice the difference in the second value; probability uses (Total
chances), but odds use (Chances against). This is why the probability
(if considered as a ratio) and the odds are different.
I hope this helps! If you have any more questions, write back!
- Doctor TWE, The Math Forum
http://mathforum.com/dr.math/
This is what you said:
"“...As far as they are concern the odds really are "1" ...”
which “odds” are you referring to here? The “odds” of what? The “odds” of evolution merely having happened or the “odds” of evolution having produced EXACTLY the outcome it did?
The probability of evolution having actually happened is 100% because we have overwhelming EVIDENCE (proof in fact) that it has happened.
The probability of evolution of producing EXACTLY whatsoever outcome it did would be one in a zillion -that, of course, has nothing to do with the probability of evolution having actually happened which is STILL 100% ."