Da Vinci Code analogous to Satanic Verses

Da Vinci Code analogous to Satanic Verses

Spirituality

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F

Unknown Territories

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30 May 06

Originally posted by bbarr
Firstly, absence of proof does not entail proof of absence, so even if the theist could not muster good arguments for God’s existence, atheism would not be true by default. Even if all the proofs of God’s existence were to fail, it may still be the case that God exists.

Right. I’ve never claimed that it is logically impossible that God exists. But it ...[text shortened]... im that any conception of God is instantiated in the world. No omniscience required.[/b]
Well, it appears that this is what the entire argument hangs upon:

Third, it is false that there is no evidence for the negation of the claim that God exists (if God is construed theistically, and taken to have the properties Christians commonly ascribe to Him). Indeed, I’ve provided any number of arguments in these forums concerning this very matter.

While you may have provided any number of arguments in these forums, those offerings would have to be accepted as true, prior to here holding them out as proof of negation. That has not been accomplished.

W
Angler

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Originally posted by AThousandYoung
By Salman Rushdie. One Catholic scandal, one Muslim. Yes or no?
No. The Satanic Verses is a complex exploration of colonialism (among other things) by a gifted writer; The Da Vinci Code is not only cheesy genre fiction, but also one of those rare books inferior to the movie version.

H
I stink, ergo I am

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Originally posted by rwingett
That is correct. So why do christians always want to pick fights with the strong atheists and ignore the weak atheists? I have a few suspicions of my own, but I want to hear what you think.
Weak atheism does not posit a truth claim merely a shrugging of the shoulders that given the "lack of evidence" God shall be assumed nonexistent -- it doesn't make for the rigorous debate that two positions of polar opposites would.

What were your suspicions?

Chief Justice

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Originally posted by FreakyKBH
Well, it appears that this is what the entire argument hangs upon:

[b]Third, it is false that there is no evidence for the negation of the claim that God exists (if God is construed theistically, and taken to have the properties Christians commonly ascribe to Him). Indeed, I’ve provided any number of arguments in these forums concerning this very matte ...[text shortened]... d as true, prior to here holding them out as proof of negation. That has not been accomplished.
Fortunately for us philosophers and natural scientists, the strength of arguments don't at all depend on whether theists find them persuasive.

Naturally Right

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Originally posted by rwingett
Atheism can never be 'true.' It asserts nothing. The only relevant question is whether christianity (or some other religion) is true. If all the proofs of god's existance were to fail then the christian claim would not merit belief. One could not logically believe in the existance of a god.

Only some atheists (like Bbarr) will go so far as to make the c ...[text shortened]... t there is no reason to believe that it is true. The result, therefore, is atheism.
We've had this discussion before and you remain inconsistent and/or wrong. IF an atheist asserts that the "entire burden of proof" on the existence or non-existence of God rests on the theist, then his position is not compatible with agnosticism. An agnostic places no such extreme and one sided burden.

Ming the Merciless

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1 edit

Originally posted by Halitose
Weak atheism does not posit a truth claim merely a shrugging of the shoulders that given the "lack of evidence" God shall be assumed nonexistent -- it doesn't make for the rigorous debate that two positions of polar opposites would.

What were your suspicions?
My suspicions are that christians only want to argue against so-called "strong" atheists so they can try to avoid having to shoulder the entire burden of proof themselves. This task is made far easier if they can paint all atheists as believing in the non-existence of god, or claiming to know that god does not exist. Some atheists will allow themselves to be painted into such a corner, but most knowledgable atheists will not.

But you're right, there is no debate between two opposing claims. The theist's claim is the only one in play, and the debate centers on whether that solitary claim merits belief or not.

H
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I think the crucial question here is whether absence of proof constitutes proof of absence. This may well be true for corporeal claims where the stringency of the scientific method can be brought to bear. How does it function epistemically with supernatural/transcendental claims?

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1 edit

Originally posted by Halitose
I think the crucial question here is whether absence of proof constitutes proof of absence. This may well be true for corporeal claims where the stringency of the scientific method can be brought to bear. How does it function epistemically with supernatural/transcendental claims?
This was exactly the point of my last posts. The only evidence for non-existence of a logically possible God is the absence of evidence for its existence.

Therefore, the claim that the atheist is being somehow unfair by demanding evidence is incorrect, since the absence of evidence is, in fact, evidence supporting his position.

So the atheist is already in a position where evidence is in favour of his position and this is why the theist is required to present evidence in favour of his claim.

Edit: Changing proof for evidence in the second sentence.

Ming the Merciless

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Originally posted by Halitose
I think the crucial question here is whether absence of proof constitutes proof of absence. This may well be true for corporeal claims where the stringency of the scientific method can be brought to bear. How does it function epistemically with supernatural/transcendental claims?
Absence of proof does not constitute proof of absence. Proof of absence is not required to warrant atheism. Absence of proof is sufficient.

Zellulärer Automat

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1 edit

Originally posted by Palynka
So the atheist is already in a position where evidence is in favour of his position and this is why the theist is required to present evidence in favour of his claim.
Your move, Halitose (you're playing black) 😉

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Originally posted by Bosse de Nage
Your move, Halitose (you're playing black) 😉
Don't forget to mention the check. 🙂

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Originally posted by Palynka
Don't forget to mention the check. 🙂
Without going too far into the argument, as it is child's play, really, however...
how does the atheist explain logic?

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Originally posted by FreakyKBH
Without going too far into the argument, as it is child's play, really, however...
how does the atheist explain logic?
Please don't confuse a small joke with childish banter.

Zellulärer Automat

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Originally posted by FreakyKBH
how does the atheist explain logic?
For your slower readers--could you rephrase that more clearly?

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Originally posted by Bosse de Nage
For your slower readers--could you rephrase that more clearly?
The challenge has been put forth that a theist must provide evidence for their position. I am merely laying rudimentary groundwork.