08 Dec '05 18:16>
Originally posted by NemesioI suspect we are.
If you think it is lawful and just to kill the first-born innocents of
a nation, then you and I are talking about two different Gods.
Nemesio
Originally posted by NemesioAnd yours, as you've already implicitly pointed out many times, is not the God of the Bible. He is the god of the non-literal-book-of-fiction-as-seen-by-Nemesio.
That's right. Your 'god' is a barbarian and sicko and my God embraces
compassion and justice.
Thanks for confirming this!
Nemesio
Originally posted by joelekNo, I couldn't murder anyone in the eyes of my God and be justified. I would not be following the principles He has given me by which to live.
No, I couldn't murder anyone in the eyes of my God and be justified. I would not be following the principles He has given me by which to live.
There's a big difference between God ending life in judgment and me going around being some religious vigilante. I have no authorization from God to do any such thing.
By the way, there are a lot of Christian ...[text shortened]... . If you don't think God's ways of doing things "cut it," I'd say you have a bigger issue.
Originally posted by joelekIn law, the term "malice" has it relates to murder is intent to kill without justifiable excuse (i.e. self-defense or other defenses). There are other states of mind which lead to actions that cause death (i.e. recklessness or extreme negligence) which can lead to lesser homicide charges like manslaughter or negligent homicide. Thus, God's intent would certainly be to cause the deaths and then you are left with whether any entity can be above the law even if he creates it. In human legal systems, at least those which aren't arbitrary dictatorships, the answer is "no" at least so far as criminal statutes are concerned.
If you have Firefox, type [b]dict murder in the address bar. If you're still running Internet Explorer, go to www.dictionary.com and type murder in the search box. The first definition you'll get is:
The unlawful killing of one human by another, especially with premeditated malice.
God's judgment is neither unlawful nor malicious.[/b]
Originally posted by KnightWulfeThat would be a tragedy. I would like to see them come to know Christ. That does not mean God is not justified in doing what you suggest.
but the question is still there.... You would be fine if God dropped dead every follower of the Hindu religion on the planet, since they are all heathens?
Originally posted by no1marauderGod is not subject to any human law. If He were, He would by definition not be God. So how can His judgments be considered to be unlawful?
In law, the term "malice" has it relates to murder is intent to kill without justifiable excuse (i.e. self-defense or other defenses). There are other states of mind which lead to actions that cause death (i.e. recklessness or extreme negligence) which can lead to lesser homicide charges like manslaughter or negligent homicide. Thus, God's intent woul ...[text shortened]... rbitrary dictatorships, the answer is "no" at least so far as criminal statutes are concerned.
Originally posted by joelekThat argument is circular (and the second premise is dubious). I was addressing your relying on a dictionary definition; if you simply are going to assert that God can't be morally subject to any standards, do so but don't use legal reasoning where it doesn't belong.
God is not subject to any human law. If He were, He would by definition not be God. So how can His judgments be considered to be [b]unlawful?[/b]
Originally posted by no1marauderWell, I'm not so sure it's circular. I think the notion of murder does not apply to the judgment on Egypt because God was not being unlawful in so doing. That's not circular reasoning.
That argument is circular (and the second premise is dubious). I was addressing your relying on a dictionary definition; if you simply are going to assert that God can't be morally subject to any standards, do so but don't use legal reasoning where it doesn't belong.
Originally posted by joelekThen you don't understand what a circular argument is. Here your conclusion is the same as your first premise. That is a classic circular argument.
Well, I'm not so sure it's circular. I think the notion of murder does not apply to the judgment on Egypt because God was not being unlawful in so doing. That's not circular reasoning.
However, now that you broach it, God is subject to His own moral standards, many of which are revealed in the Bible. And He certainly does not violate those in His actions. His moral standards include justice.
Originally posted by joelek…the non-literal-book-of-fiction…
And yours, as you've already implicitly pointed out many times, is not the God of the Bible. He is the god of the non-literal-book-of-fiction-as-seen-by-Nemesio.
Originally posted by NemesioIf God can perform acts which run contrary to His Law, then who is to say
Originally posted by Halitose
[b]1) God created this whole universe; who are you to say what He may or may not do? He is the giver of life and can just as easily take it away.
So the God who gave us moral guidelines is in no way bound to them?
God can lie, steal, cheat, murder, and fornicate with utter impunity (after all,
He made us, right ...[text shortened]... on and love,
then envisioning a God who can and does murder with impunity is absurd.
Nemesio[/b]