Originally posted by pritybetta
Originally posted by LemonJello
[b]"Supposing that is true, your Lord must be quite mistaken at times. You might want to stop and ask yourself if what he says actually makes any sense before you endorse it."
That is just it, if someone goes by what they 'think' makes sense, they could be mistaken themselves. They could be going by what the rent from the everyday usage. I am meaning it as the nature of man.[/b]
I just searched for the phrase “born in sin” in a number of English translations of the Bible (both OT and NT)—KJV, NIV, NJB, NRSV, and couple of others—and it does not appear. In fact, the words “born” and “sin” seem to only occur together in the same verse twice: 1st John 3:9 and 5:18. The only other example I can find is John 9:34, where the Pharisees are speaking to the healed man (“You were born entirely in sins...” ).
The same for the word combinations “birth/sin” and “born/sinned” and a couple of other combinations.
“Born/sinner” appear in Psalm 51:5. “Indeed, I was born guilty, a sinner when my mother conceived me.”
Why would you take such statements as Isaiah’s and the Psalmist’s (or the Pharisees&rsquo😉 literally? That itself is an interpretive stance—and not one that I think you would apply to, say, God actually sitting on a throne.
At bottom, there is no clear explication of what being “born in sin” might mean in the Bible. People read (and have read) the Biblical texts (whether or not through some pre-determined theological “lens” ) and piece together
an interpretation from interpretations of what various Biblical writers
intended to mean by what they said, and that
interpretive complex becomes a theological conclusion, a statement of doctrine, what “the Bible means”—or even, to those who have forgotten the process, “what the Bible
says”.
Now, your literal reading of these texts could be correct; but I don’t think it is. Your theological conclusions from these texts read in light of others—and vice versa: the process of contextualization—might be correct; but I don’t think they are. (And I, too, have spent much time doing this stuff, as have you.) But the most either one of us might be able to do is to argue why we think our interpretive approach is the correct—or at least the best—one. And various people, both Christian and non-Christian, have presented various theological arguments over the millennia.
The Bible does
not interpret itself. (I’m not saying you claimed that; if you did I don’t remember it.) When people use the phrase “self-interpreting”, they really just mean that they don’t seek
their interpretation of a text from anywhere other than other Biblical texts.
It is quite possible to come to a good-faith impasse in arguments over Biblical interpretation: folks like Epiphenehas and jaywill and FreakyKBH and myself have gotten to that point lots of times. Sometimes it is just because what one of us sees as a primary text, with which to contextualize others, the other sees as a text itself in need of further contextualization. For example, I tend to take “The/this Logos was God” (John 1:1) and “This/the God is
agape” (1st John 4:8 and 16) as such primary texts; their meaning is determined solely by the definitions of the terms used, and the fact that the paired terms are both in the nominative case as identities, etc.. These primary texts (and other like them) then become the contextual lens through which I interpret other texts.
But some people do not think these
are such primary texts. And that difference can explain a whole lot of other theological differences between, say (just for example) some Greek Orthodox Christians and some Protestant Christians.
And the interpretive (hermeneutical) arguments we have had on here generally go on for pages and pages, as we form larger and larger interpretive complexes, weighing this piece against that.
Now, however, I have wandered far afield from anything else we were talking about . . . 🙂
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EDIT: I just saw your other post to me. I think I see the differentiation you are making. Here, however, I think I have at least moved the question back to theological ground...? 🙂