07 Jun '05 19:59>
Are more terms being tortured in here again?
Originally posted by dj2beckerSorry, your sources are incorrect. The term 'porneia' refers to prostitution, not to fornication. There is no evidence 'porneia' was used to refer to anything broader or more inclusive than the what the term meant in common usage at the time. Look at the etymology of the word. It comes from 'porne' (a prostitute), which comes from 'pernemi' (to sell). You are simply stipulating, without any evidence, that 'porneia' is used in some some idiosyncratic way.
Regarding divorce, Jesus Christ stated: "Whoever divorces his wife, except on the ground of fornication, and marries another commits adultery." (Matt. 19:9) "Everyone divorcing his wife, except on account of fornication, makes her a su ...[text shortened]... "to prostitute, debauch."
http://quotes.watchtower.ca/oral.htm
Originally posted by bbarrI wonder if Dj2becker realized that his source was a website for Jehovah's Witnesses. Somehow, I doubt it.
Sorry, your sources are incorrect. The term 'porneia' refers to prostitution, not to fornication. There is no evidence 'porneia' was used to refer to anything broader or more inclusive than the what the term meant in common usage at the time. Look at the etymology of the word. It comes from 'porne' (a prostitute), which comes from 'pernemi' (to sel ...[text shortened]... ude oral sex practiced consentually between husband and wife. So, oral sex itself is not a sin.
Originally posted by bbarrporneia - "Fornication, lewdness, or any sexual sin" (The Complete Word Study Dictionary of the New Testament, Spiros Zodhiates, p.1201, emphasis added)
Sorry, your sources are incorrect. The term 'porneia' refers to prostitution, not to fornication. There is no evidence 'porneia' was used to refer to anything broader or more inclusive than the what the term meant in common usage at the time. Look at the etymology of the word. It comes from 'porne' (a prostitute), which comes from 'pernemi' (to sel ...[text shortened]... ude oral sex practiced consentually between husband and wife. So, oral sex itself is not a sin.
Originally posted by bbarrSorry, your sources are incorrect. The term 'porneia' refers to prostitution, not to fornication.
Sorry, your sources are incorrect. The term 'porneia' refers to prostitution, not to fornication. There is no evidence 'porneia' was used to refer to anything broader or more inclusive than the what the term meant in common usage at the time. Look at the etymology of the word. It comes from 'porne' (a prostitute), which comes from 'pernemi' (to sel ...[text shortened]... ude oral sex practiced consentually between husband and wife. So, oral sex itself is not a sin.
Originally posted by dj2beckerThe first sentence from that source:
I found this site to be useful for a Bible believing Christian:
http://achristiancounselor.com/oralsex.html