is oral sex a sin

Originally posted by XanthosNZ
The first sentence from that source:

"There may not be a specific passage in the Bible on the subject of oral sex, but for sure scriptures leading to NOT to practise this."

Apart from making no sense this also contradicts what you are trying to say.

That is why you should read more than just the first sentence.

Originally posted by dj2becker
That is why you should read more than just the first sentence.

Why would I willingly subject myself to reading blue and red comic sans text, which is full of grammatical errors, on a grey textured background while listening to annoying midi music?

Originally posted by XanthosNZ
Why would I willingly subject myself to reading blue and red comic sans text, which is full of grammatical errors, on a grey textured background while listening to annoying midi music?

I didn't say you had to. But it might be useful to do so first and comment once you've read all of it instead of commenting on the first line only.

Originally posted by dj2becker
I didn't say you had to. But it might be useful to do so first and comment once you've read all of it instead of commenting on the first line only.

Don't underestimate the importance of first impressions.

Originally posted by dj2becker
[b]Sorry, your sources are incorrect. The term 'porneia' refers to prostitution, not to fornication.

The Greek word that is alternately translated as "fornication" or "sexual immorality" (depending on the Bible version) is porneia. Some claim this word only refers to prostitution and not pre-marital sex in general.

The word is defined by ...[text shortened]... d include all of these concepts.

http://www.dtl.org/ethics/article/pre-marital/always-sin.htm[/b]

You have no idea what you are talking about. The greek word 'porneia' means 'prostitution', just as 'porne' means 'harlot' and 'pernemi' means 'to sell'. This is how the term was used by greeks, and you have provided no evidence that the original choice of the word 'porneia' was meant to indicate sexual immorality broadly nor, if so, that oral sex was intended to fall under that description. All you have shown is that some Christians on the internet believe that oral sex is a sin, and tailor their translations of greek words accordingly. So what? You folk play fast and losse with language all the time!

Again, what evidence is there that oral sex is a sin? Can you point me to a scholarly article, either in biblical translation or in classics, that supports your view? If not, then I suggest that your view concerning oral sex is not grounded in scripture, but merely flows from your own repressed, warped views concerning human sexuality.

Originally posted by dj2becker
OK. The Bible does not explicitly say "oral sex is a sin". But if you look at the original Greek for the word "sexual immorality" you will find it is "pornea". This word includes any sexual misconduct, including oral sex.

(1 Th 4:3-7 NIV) It is God's will that you should be sanctified: that you should avoid sexual immorality; {4} that each of you ...[text shortened]... dy told you and warned you. {7} For God did not call us to be impure, but to live a holy life.

I don't think the Bible necessarily is including oral sex when it speaks of sexual immorality. It is clear on using prostitutes and homosexual acts, and it is clear on adultery. But oral sex within a marriage may be fine. The only way to be sure would be by comparing other scripture verses. Does it say anything in the Old Testament?

Using Greek and Hebrew dictionaries is a good starting point - but they do not have authority over scripture - and they have been wrong before. Scripture should interpret scripture - so to know if oral sex within marriage is a sin - we must determine is deduction.

I think it can be a sin - as can any thing we do that might compete with God for or minds. Being obsessed with chocolate would be a sin if it displaces God in out minds. Do you agree?

If oral sex is wrong, I don't want to be right.

Originally posted by bbarr
Where does the Bible say that oral sex is sinful?

Why would it matter? And to whom?

Originally posted by Coletti
I don't think the Bible necessarily is including oral sex when it speaks of sexual immorality. It is clear on using prostitutes and homosexual acts, and it is clear on adultery. But oral sex within a marriage may be fine. The only way to be sure would be by comparing other scripture verses. Does it say anything in the Old Testament?

Using Greek and ...[text shortened]... . Being obsessed with chocolate would be a sin if it displaces God in out minds. Do you agree?

Sure. I would agree with you on that one.

I think I should have made it clearer: Out of marriage is definately out.

Originally posted by lucifershammer
Why would it matter? And to whom?

Presumably it would matter to dj2becker, given that the answer to this question will have ramifications for his young adulthood.

This thread Sucks!

Originally posted by bbarr
Presumably it would matter to dj2becker, given that the answer to this question will have ramifications for his young adulthood.

Well I sure know the answer to the question😉