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Originally posted by bbarrMatthew 5:28 - But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.
Where does the Bible say that oral sex is sinful?
2 Timothy 2:22 - Flee also youthful lusts: but follow righteousness, faith, charity, peace, with them that call on the Lord out of a pure heart.
Originally posted by dj2beckerSo, again, where does the bible say oral sex is a sin?
Matthew 5:28 - But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.
2 Timothy 2:22 - Flee also youthful lusts: but follow righteousness, faith, charity, peace, with them that call on the Lord out of a pure heart.
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Originally posted by bbarrOK. The Bible does not explicitly say "oral sex is a sin". But if you look at the original Greek for the word "sexual immorality" you will find it is "pornea". This word includes any sexual misconduct, including oral sex.
Um, O.K., but where does it say that oral sex is a sin?
(1 Th 4:3-7 NIV) It is God's will that you should be sanctified: that you should avoid sexual immorality; {4} that each of you should learn to control his own body in a way that is holy and honorable, {5} not in passionate lust like the heathen, who do not know God; {6} and that in this matter no one should wrong his brother or take advantage of him. The Lord will punish men for all such sins, as we have already told you and warned you. {7} For God did not call us to be impure, but to live a holy life.
Originally posted by dj2beckerI do believe that "pornea" is the Greek word for a female slave, as related by Gloria Steinem in a interview about 5 years ago. Not as solid a reference as, say, the Bible, but the authors aren't around to question either, are they?
OK. The Bible does not explicitly say "oral sex is a sin". But if you look at the original Greek for the word "sexual immorality" you will find it is "pornea". This word includes any sexual misconduct, including oral sex.
(1 Th 4:3-7 NIV) It is God's will that you should be sanctified: that you should avoid sexual immorality; {4} that each of you ...[text shortened]... dy told you and warned you. {7} For God did not call us to be impure, but to live a holy life.
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Originally posted by PBE6Well it's as I said before: "If you belive the Bible..."
I do believe that "pornea" is the Greek word for a female slave, as related by Gloria Steinem in a interview about 5 years ago. Not as solid a reference as, say, the Bible, but the authors aren't around to question either, are they?
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Originally posted by dj2beckerActually, the original Greek term is 'porneia', which is derived from 'porne' which refers to a prostitute, which in turn is derived from 'pernemi', which means 'to sell'.
OK. The Bible does not explicitly say "oral sex is a sin". But if you look at the original Greek for the word "sexual immorality" you will find it is "pornea". This word includes any sexual misconduct, including oral sex.
(1 Th 4 ...[text shortened]... } For God did not call us to be impure, but to live a holy life.
It is clear that the term 'porneia' actually refers to engaging in prostitution and related forms sexual conduct. It has absolutely no relationship to the act of oral sex. In particular, it would not cover acts of oral sex between husband and wife.
You seem to think that you have the authority to stipulate a new definition for the term 'porneia', a definition which is blind to the word's actual usage and etiological roots. What on Earth would possess you to think that you have such authority?
So, again, without engaging in any back-door gerrymandering of definitions, can you point out anything in the Bible which says that oral sex is a sin?
Originally posted by bbarrYou seem to think that you have the authority to stipulate a new definition for the term 'porneia', a definition which is blind to the words actual usage and etiological roots. Why on Earth would possess you to think that you have such authority?
Actually, the original Greek term is 'porneia', which is derived from 'porne' which refers to a prostitute, which in turn is derived from 'pernemi', which means 'to sell'.
It is clear that the term 'porneia' actually refers to engaging in prostitution and related forms sexual conduct. It has absolutely no relationship to the act of oral sex. ...[text shortened]... ing of definitions, can you point out anything in the Bible which says that oral sex is a sin?
This must be a perk fundies get, along with the Secret Decoder Ring, as Coletti uses this extraordinary power on a daily basis.
Originally posted by no1marauderThe bizarre thing is that they think that once they redefine some word with a previously well-established meaning, the rest of us are bound by the gerrymandered definition. The etymology of the term 'ethical', for instance, simply does not involve any reference to God or to gods. Yet once upon a time, some stupid Christian out there decided that he could stipulate the 'ethical' means 'in accord with God's will' or some such nonsense. Hey, you know what? That's not what the term means, jackasses!
You seem to think that you have the authority to stipulate a new definition for the term 'porneia', a definition which is blind to the word's actual usage and etiological roots. What on Earth would possess you to think that you have such authority?
This must be a perk fundies get, along with the Secret Decoder Ring, as Coletti uses this extraordinary power on a daily basis.
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Originally posted by bbarrRegarding divorce, Jesus Christ stated: "Whoever divorces his wife, except on the ground of fornication, and marries another commits adultery." (Matt. 19:9) "Everyone divorcing his wife, except on account of fornication, makes her a subject for adultery, and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery."—Matt. 5:32.
Actually, the original Greek term is 'porneia', which is derived from 'porne' which refers to a prostitute, which in turn is derived from 'pernemi', which means 'to sell'.
It is clear that the term 'porneia' actually refers to engaging in prostitution and related forms sexual conduct. It has absolutely no relationship to the act of oral sex. I ...[text shortened]... ering of definitions, can you point out anything in the Bible which says that oral sex is a sin?
Thus "fornication" is set forth as the only ground for divorce. In the common Greek in which Jesus’ words are recorded, the term "fornication" is por·nei'a, which designates all forms of immoral sexual relations, perversions and lewd practices such as might be carried on in a house of prostitution, including oral and anal copulation.
As to Jesus’ statements about divorce, they do not specify with whom the "fornication" or por·nei'a is practiced. They leave the matter open. That por·nei'a can rightly be considered as including perversions within the marriage arrangement is seen in that the man who forces his wife to have unnatural sex relations with him in effect "prostitutes" or "debauches" her. This makes him guilty of por·nei'a, for the related Greek verb por·neu'o means "to prostitute, debauch."
http://quotes.watchtower.ca/oral.htm