Jesus vs. God
01 Jun '15 17:311 editchaney3 - Concerning ThinkofOne's cautionary note:
So Zechariah 2:8-11 proves that in this mysterious book God is Jehovah of hosts AND the One whom has been sent by Jehovah of hosts. This makes Zechariah 12:10 quite consistent with the "context" and tone of the whole book.
We have seen that God says the Israelites will look upon Himself whom they have pierced and will mourn for Him. Judiasm, since the resurrection of Christ has largely been structured around a rationalization that Jesus was not the Messiah.
Some Jewish voices did state that Zechariah's reference to the pierced one referred to what was called "the son of Joseph".
As seen below some Jewish Messianic interpretations of the verse did understand that this was the piercing of the Messiah.
For many explanation from Jews at JewsForJudaism you may find another viewpoint from Jews as well from JewsForJesus.
http://www.jewsforjesus.org/answers/prophecy/jewish-messianic-interpretations-of-zechariah-1210
[My bolding]
For example, the following link takes you to an analysis of Zechariah 12:10 by a Rabbi:
https://jewsforjudaism.org/knowledge/articles/answers/jewish-polemics/texts/scriptural-studies/analysis-of-zechariah-1210/
Quite often Christians like Sonship take a verse or two and read things into them without considering the full context and without understanding how some NT writers had taken liberties with some verses (including Zechariah 12:10 in John 19:37) in order to bend them to fit their theology.
So Zechariah 2:8-11 proves that in this mysterious book God is Jehovah of hosts AND the One whom has been sent by Jehovah of hosts. This makes Zechariah 12:10 quite consistent with the "context" and tone of the whole book.
We have seen that God says the Israelites will look upon Himself whom they have pierced and will mourn for Him. Judiasm, since the resurrection of Christ has largely been structured around a rationalization that Jesus was not the Messiah.
Some Jewish voices did state that Zechariah's reference to the pierced one referred to what was called "the son of Joseph".
As seen below some Jewish Messianic interpretations of the verse did understand that this was the piercing of the Messiah.
And the land shall mourn, every family apart; the family of the house of David apart, and their wives apart [Zech. 12:12]....What is the cause of the mourning? -- R. Dosa and the Rabbis differ on the point. One explained. The cause is the slaying of Messiah the son of Joseph, and the other explained, The cause is the slaying of the Evil Inclination.
Babylonian Talmud, Sukkah 52a
It is well with him who explains that the cause is the slaying of Messiah the son of Joseph, since that well agrees with the Scriptural verse, And they shall look upon me because they have thrust him through, and they shall mourn for him as one mourneth for his only son; but according to him who explains the cause to be the slaying of the Evil Inclination, is this an occasion for mourning? Is it not rather an occasion for rejoicing? Why then should they weep?
Soncino Talmud edition.
For many explanation from Jews at JewsForJudaism you may find another viewpoint from Jews as well from JewsForJesus.
http://www.jewsforjesus.org/answers/prophecy/jewish-messianic-interpretations-of-zechariah-1210
[My bolding]
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