1. Standard memberDarfius
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    16 Mar '05 20:20
    7:24 "Judge not according to the appearance, but judge righteous judgment." John

    Comments?
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    16 Mar '05 20:26
    Originally posted by Darfius
    7:24 "Judge not according to the appearance, but judge righteous judgment." John

    Comments?
    now can you explain what that means? So that those who not believe may understand.
  3. Donationbbarr
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    16 Mar '05 20:28
    Originally posted by Darfius
    7:24 "Judge not according to the appearance, but judge righteous judgment." John

    Comments?
    Does the term 'righteous' in the above imperative modify the term 'judge' or the term 'judgment'? Are we to judge as righteous those judgments we come across, or are we to judge those judgments that are themselves righteous?
  4. Standard memberDarfius
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    16 Mar '05 20:34
    It means that only a Christian who is right in her or his walk with God has the right to judge. And this is only done through the discernment given from the Holy Spirit. Of course, we should not make judging a habit, since we all have to appear before the Judgement Seat of God, but at times it is necessary, so people know when they are doing wrong and can correct it.
  5. Donationbbarr
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    16 Mar '05 20:37
    Originally posted by Darfius
    It means that only a Christian who is right in her or his walk with God has the right to judge. And this is only done through the discernment given from the Holy Spirit. Of course, we should not make judging a habit, since we all have to appear before the Judgement Seat of God, but at times it is necessary, so people know when they are doing wrong and can correct it.
    How did you derive that interpretation from the imperative above? Also, could you answer my previous question? I'd love to comment on the imperative, but I need you to clarify the syntax for me.
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    16 Mar '05 20:38
    Originally posted by Darfius
    It means that only a Christian who is right in her or his walk with God has the right to judge. And this is only done through the discernment given from the Holy Spirit. Of course, we should not make judging a habit, since we all have to appear before the Judgement Seat of God, but at times it is necessary, so people know when they are doing wrong and can correct it.
    there is undestanding in what you just said both for the believer and the unbeliever.
  7. Standard memberDarfius
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    16 Mar '05 20:39
    Originally posted by bbarr
    Does the term 'righteous' in the above imperative modify the term 'judge' or the term 'judgment'? Are we to judge as righteous those judgments we come across, or are we to judge those judgments that are themselves righteous?
    Modify? It is commanding Christians to make judgements that are righteous.
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    16 Mar '05 20:47
    Originally posted by bbarr
    Does the term 'righteous' in the above imperative modify the term 'judge' or the term 'judgment'? Are we to judge as righteous those judgments we come across, or are we to judge those judgments that are themselves righteous?
    Good question, BBarr. The wording is ambiguous to me. I cannot conclude what exact action is being commanded by JC. I especially cannot see how Darfius interprets this verse as a free license to judge others "righteously".
  9. Donationbbarr
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    16 Mar '05 20:48
    Originally posted by Darfius
    Modify? It is commanding Christians to make judgements that are righteous.
    That may be your interpretation of the imperative, and your interpretation may be correct, but your interpretation is not clearly indicated by the syntax of the imperative. The imperative does not say "judge righteously". It says "judge righteous judgment". Now, again, which term does 'righteous' modify? Does it modify 'judge' (the term on the left) or 'judgment' (the term on the right)?
  10. Standard memberDarfius
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    16 Mar '05 20:49
    Originally posted by darvlay
    Good question, BBarr. The wording is ambiguous to me. I cannot conclude what exact action is being commanded by JC. I especially cannot see how Darfius interprets this verse as a free license to judge others "righteously".
    22 This righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no difference, 23 for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, 24 and are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus. 25 God presented him as a sacrifice of atonement, through faith in his blood. (Romans 3)
  11. Standard memberDarfius
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    16 Mar '05 20:50
    Originally posted by bbarr
    That may be your interpretation of the imperative, and your interpretation may be correct, but your interpretation is not clearly indicated by the syntax of the imperative. The imperative does not say "judge righteously". It says "judge righteous judgment". Now, again, which term does 'righteous' modify? Does it modify 'judge' (the term on the left) or 'judgment' (the term on the right)?
    Are you applying English language rules to Greek and Aramaic scripture translated to English?
  12. Donationbbarr
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    16 Mar '05 20:51
    Originally posted by darvlay
    Good question, BBarr. The wording is ambiguous to me. I cannot conclude what exact action is being commanded by JC. I especially cannot see how Darfius interprets this verse as a free license to judge others "righteously".
    Like you, I think it is unclear how Darfius' interpretation follows from the syntax of the imperative. Perhaps he is inferring that the imperative must claim something in the vicinity of his interpretation because there are other passages in the bible that suggest his interpretation. If so, he ought to have posted those imperatives for comment rather than this syntactically ambiguous imperative.
  13. Standard memberDoctorScribbles
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    16 Mar '05 20:521 edit
    Originally posted by Darfius
    Are you applying English language rules to Greek and Aramaic scripture translated to English?
    It is certainly fair to do so given a trusted translation to English. If you have a grievance, take it up with the translator, not the reader.
  14. Donationbbarr
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    16 Mar '05 20:55
    Originally posted by Darfius
    Are you applying English language rules to Greek and Aramaic scripture translated to English?
    I am asking the question that I am asking. The imperative you provided is ambiguous in the manner I pointed out. It can be taken to express either of two propositions. Which proposition ought we take it to express? If you think the passage ought to be read as expressing the imperative 'judge righteously', then please provide the original text, so that I may determine for myself whether your interpretation is accurate.
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    16 Mar '05 20:55
    Originally posted by Darfius
    22 This [b]righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no difference, 23 for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, 24 and are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus. 25 God presented him as a sacrifice of atonement, through faith in his blood. (Romans 3)
    [/b]
    😕

    You need not clarify for me why it is you believe you are a righteous person.
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