Originally posted by Una
First of all we must not take a passage out of context. Let us read the scriptures
22 because of this, Moses hath given you the circumcision -- not that it is of Moses, but of the fathers -- and on a sabbath ye circumcise a man;
23 if ...[text shortened]... ucified yet , He was speaking as an Old Testament Prophet to them.
Thank you for the clarification, but vistesd has kindly clarified the passage in question back on page three of this thread. According to the information he provided, it appears we should take the imperative to be "judge righteously", and that the translation Darfius originally provided was just poor. Your translation, "righteous judgement judge", is clearly better, and conforms with vistesd's interpretation.
Like No.1 and others in this thread, I'm a bit confused on how we should reconcile the imperative to judge righteously with the Jesus' general prohibition against judging. After all, Jesus himself claimed to judge no man.
Perhaps the Christian could say something like the following:
1. Under no circumstances is it permissible to judge a person
qua person. For instance, we ought never judge a person as being damned, or vicious, or...
2. Under some circumstances it is permissible to judge the judgments or actions of a person. For instance, we may judge that this person's judgement that P is itself unjustified, or that this person's action ought not to have been done.
3. As a proviso to (2), it is only permissible for one to judge the judgments or actions of a person if one is himself righteous. In general, one ought tend to one's own faults rather than go about judging the judgments and actions of others, for it is often the case that the faults we see in others will be reflections of faults we ourselves possess.
Is something like this accurate, as far as the scriptural evidence suggests?