My Lord Jesus says:

Originally posted by Darfius
7:24 "Judge not according to the appearance, but judge righteous judgment." John

Comments?

You absolutely amaze me. You try to take an ambiguous, at best, verse and replace a clear command. Luke 6:37

37 And judge not, and ye shall not be judged: and condemn not, and ye shall not be condemned: release, and ye shall be released:

Does anybody find ANY ambiguity in those words???

EDIT: I meant to Reply and Quote to your other ridiculous post where you outrageously assert that Jesus gave Christians to right to judge others.

Originally posted by darvlay
😕

You need not clarify for me why it is you believe you are a righteous person.

It clarifies both the verse and my interpretation.

Originally posted by darvlay
Good question, BBarr. The wording is ambiguous to me. I cannot conclude what exact action is being commanded by JC. I especially cannot see how Darfius interprets this verse as a free license to judge others "righteously".

self-righteously , perhaps.

I thought it was " Judge not , lest ye be judged" anyway

Originally posted by no1marauder
You absolutely amaze me. You try to take an ambiguous, at best, verse and replace a clear command. Luke 6:37

37 And judge not, and ye shall not be judged: and condemn not, and ye shall not be condemned: release, and ye shall be released:

Does anybody find ANY ambiguity in those words???

Where is the ambiguity in the verse I provided, aside from your remark?

Originally posted by Darfius
Where is the ambiguity in the verse I provided, aside from your remark?

Are you saying the verses contradict each other?

Originally posted by Darfius
22 This [b]righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no difference, 23 for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, 24 and are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus. 25 God presented him as a sacrifice of atonement, through faith in his blood. (Romans 3)
[/b]

Is this the Christian version of Tourette's syndrome? In response to Darvlay's skepticism regarding your interpretation, you merely cite some scripture that has nothing to do with the imperative at issue. How strange! Let us try to stay on the topic, Darfius. Now, what basis is there for your interpretation of the imperative you cited originally? Also, could you please answer my previous question concerning the syntactical role of 'righteous'? Your readers are anxious to comment, but we need your help.

Originally posted by no1marauder
You absolutely amaze me. You try to take an ambiguous, at best, verse and replace a clear command. Luke 6:37

37 And judge not, and ye shall not be judged: and condemn not, and ye shall not be condemned: release, and ye shall be released:

Does anybody find ANY ambiguity in those words???

I find no ambiguity, but since you take snippets from the Bible to suit your fancy, you can not make a judgement (pardon the pun) call on what He means. As I showed quite well with the MLK snippet.

He is telling people to be wary and judge only when they are right in their walk with God. I will clarify with a verse from Jesus:

7:1 Judge not, that ye be not judged. 7:2 For with what judgment ye judge, ye shall be judged: and with what measure ye mete, it shall be measured to you again. 7:3 And why beholdest thou the mote that is in thy brother's eye, but considerest not the beam that is in thine own eye? 7:4 Or how wilt thou say to thy brother, Let me pull out the mote out of thine eye; and, behold, a beam is in thine own eye? 7:5 Thou hypocrite, first cast out the beam out of thine own eye; and then shalt thou see clearly to cast out the mote out of thy brother's eye. Matthew

And Paul says:

6:1 Dare any of you, having a matter against another, go to law before the unjust, and not before the saints? 6:2 Do ye not know that the saints shall judge the world? and if the world shall be judged by you, are ye unworthy to judge the smallest matters? 6:3 Know ye not that we shall judge angels? how much more things that pertain to this life? 6:4 If then ye have judgments of things pertaining to this life, set them to judge who are least esteemed in the church.
1st Corinthians

I know that you like to discredit the rest of the Bible, no1, but we as Christians (who testify to the Holy Spirit's existence) know that Paul was guided by God when he wrote that.

Originally posted by Darfius
Where is the ambiguity in the verse I provided, aside from your remark?

I have already pointed out the ambiguity. You have failed to address this ambiguity. Please provide the requisite clarification, Darfius. You are failing to take your role as self-appointed RHP proselytizer seriously enough. Good God, man, there are souls to save, and this verse from John could be the key! Now, what is the syntactical role of the term 'righteous' in the original imperative?

Originally posted by darvlay
Good question, BBarr. The wording is ambiguous to me. I cannot conclude what exact action is being commanded by JC. I especially cannot see how Darfius interprets this verse as a free license to judge others "righteously".

It is not a free license to judge. Christians are given the teachings of JESUS CHRIST on judgement. If we go outside those teachings we are in sin, and will face the same judgement, as those that unbelieve.

Originally posted by bbarr
I have already pointed out the ambiguity. You have failed to address this ambiguity. Please provide the requisite clarification, Darfius. You are failing to take your role as self-appointed RHP proselytizer seriously enough. Good God, man, there are souls to save, and this verse from John could be the key! Now, what is the syntactical role of the term 'righteous' in the original imperative?

I will not help you apply English language rules to a translation from Greek or Aramaic. It wouldn't make sense. If you want syntax, read the Bible.

Originally posted by Darfius
Where is the ambiguity in the verse I provided, aside from your remark?

Bbarr has pointed out the ambiguity. Are you ignoring him?

Originally posted by blindfaith101
It is not a free license to judge. Christians are given the teachings of JESUS CHRIST on judgement. If we go outside those teachings we are in sin, and will face the same judgement, as those that unbelieve.

LMAO! I unbelieve that you actually think unbelieve is a verb!

Originally posted by darvlay
Bbarr has pointed out the ambiguity. Are you ignoring him?

No he hasn't. He has set up a strawman that I shall not entertain. I showed everyone what it meant with Scripture, it is up to you to prove me WRONG on the matter, using Scripture, not writing rules we learn in grade school.

Originally posted by Darfius
I will not help you apply English language rules to a translation from Greek or Aramaic. It wouldn't make sense.

What difference does it make whether it was translated from Greek or Aramaic, or directly from the mind of God? The translator or scribe has a duty to render the correct meaning in the target language.

Either the translation is flawed or it is correct. If it is correct, then bbarr is entitled to inquire about the syntactical role of 'righteous' in order to evaluate the meaning of the imperative.

Originally posted by Darfius
I will not help you apply English language rules to a translation from Greek or Aramaic. It wouldn't make sense. If you want syntax, read the Bible.

You try reading the Gospels, Darfius. The text is actually pretty clear but by taking it out of context you butchered the meaning. Jesus was being criticized for healing on the Sabbath and said this:

22 Moses hath given you circumcision (not that it is of Moses, but of the fathers); and on the sabbath ye circumcise a man.

23 If a man receiveth circumcision on the sabbath, that the law of Moses may not be broken; are ye wroth with me, because I made a man every whit whole on the sabbath?

24 Judge not according to appearance, but judge righteous judgment.

So the passage doesn't have jack to do with you Holy Rollers looking down your nose at other people, but SPECIFICALLY refers to the point at issue. He's saying His judgment was righteous because his was doing God's work on the Sabbath even if it appeared He was breaking God's Sabbath law. He said elsewhere, "The Sabbath was made for Man, not Man for the Sabbath."

Now do you understand the passage, Darfius?