28 Dec '07 06:19>
Originally posted by epiphinehasOkay. That goes to the caveat I gave to Kirksey. If you are going to use the name Jesus as synonymous with the pre-existing Logos/Son, then I understand where you are coming from. I tend to use it differently, but both usages seem to have a long tradition in Christian writings. One could say, in terms of the dual-nature, that I tend to use the name Jesus to refer to the human side of that, while using the title ho Christos for the whole thing, and the Logos/Son for the divine side. (“Side” is really an inappropriate term, from the point of view of Chalcedonian Christology, I realize.)
I would say, yes. How could the Logos not be Jesus, if Jesus was the perfect expression of the Logos? I understand how the Orthodox view must strive not to confuse the Logos with the flesh, semantically. What I'm suggesting is that we cannot know the Logos other than phenomenologically, which is why Christ says, "He who has seen Me has seen the Father ...[text shortened]... Jesus Christ since Jesus Christ is His exact expression (indeed Jesus is the Logos Himself).
If you have any background in it, this goes very much to the arguments between the Chalcedonians (who became the “orthodox” ) and the Arians, both of whom considered themselves to be committed Christians.
The whole notion of incarnation (however one views that!) is the distinguishing mark of Christianity (as I see it anyway). Everything else follows from that. That’s why the folks in the early church spent so much time arguing over it. These were bright, bright people (on all sides), who took their faith seriously. And I think it is an error to think that everything is so scripturally clearcut that all their efforts were in vain—and I am not accusing you of that: you have proved your mettle in difficult exegesis in the midst of argument.
I frankly only find Chalcedonian Christology really interesting.