1. Standard memberDoctorScribbles
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    22 Mar '05 15:17
    Originally posted by eagles54
    I offer that two consenting adults cannot engage in sodomy. Now, when one party does not consent, that is a whole 'nutha matter.
    Ah, excellent, our first necessary condition for sodomy: Lack of consent.
  2. Standard memberwib
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    22 Mar '05 15:19
    Originally posted by eagles54
    I offer that two consenting adults cannot engage in sodomy. Now, when one party does not consent, that is a whole 'nutha matter.
    Agreed. That's my opinion of it too.

    And I believe that other would be rape/sodomy.
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    22 Mar '05 15:22
    Originally posted by DoctorScribbles
    Ah, excellent, our first necessary condition for sodomy: Lack of consent.
    I don't agree. Are you saying that sodomy is always rape?
  4. Standard memberDoctorScribbles
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    22 Mar '05 15:261 edit
    Originally posted by darvlay
    I don't agree. Are you saying that sodomy is always rape?
    I'm not. Eagles54 may be. I'm just moderating.
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    22 Mar '05 15:291 edit
    There are no necessary conditions to be a sodomite, but there are several sufficient conditions. These include:

    a) Anal copulation with someone of the same sex;
    b) Anal copulation with someone of the opposite sex;
    c) Oral copulation with someone of the same sex;
    d) Oral copulation with someone of the opposite sex;
    e) Copulation with an animal; and
    f) Abnormal copulation in the opinion of an observant.

    EDIT - I have changed my opinion of strictly "backdoor" after a bit of research...
  6. Standard memberAlcra
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    22 Mar '05 15:30
    Originally posted by darvlay
    I don't agree. Are you saying that sodomy is always rape?
    If the definition includes "lack of consent", then yes. It is rape.

    However, I disagree on the "lack of consent" part being a definition of sodomy.

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    22 Mar '05 15:30
    Originally posted by Alcra
    If the definition includes "lack of consent", then yes. It is rape.

    However, I disagree on the "lack of consent" part being a definition of sodomy.

    Then you agree that it is not necessary, but sufficient.
  8. Standard memberAlcra
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    22 Mar '05 15:31
    Originally posted by darvlay
    There are no necessary conditions to be a sodomite, but there are several sufficient conditions. These include:

    a) Anal copulation with someone of the same sex;
    b) Anal copulation with someone of the opposite sex;
    c) Oral copulation with someone of the same sex;
    d) Oral copulation with someone of the opposite sex;
    e) Copulation with an animal; a ...[text shortened]... rvant.

    EDIT - I have changed my opinion of strictly "backdoor" after a bit of research...
    f) Abnormal copulation in the opinion of an observant.

    that means EVERYTHING is sodomy, unless one defines the necessary requirements for the observer.

  9. Standard memberwib
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    22 Mar '05 15:31
    Originally posted by darvlay
    I don't agree. Are you saying that sodomy is always rape?
    Nope. Only the lack of consent would make any sexual act rape in my opinion. Oral rape, anal rape, vaginal rape, ear rape, whatever.



  10. Standard memberAlcra
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    22 Mar '05 15:32
    Originally posted by darvlay
    Then you agree that it is not necessary, but sufficient.
    No - it is neither necessary nor sufficient.

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    22 Mar '05 15:35
    Originally posted by Alcra
    [b] f) Abnormal copulation in the opinion of an observant.

    that means EVERYTHING is sodomy, unless one defines the necessary requirements for the observer.

    [/b]
    Yes. In the opinion of the observant, the persons committing the act are sodomites, if he feels that what they are "performing" is abnormal.

    If the observant is a real prude, then anything outside of performing missionary sex for the sole reason of procreation could be sodomy, in their eyes.
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    22 Mar '05 15:36
    Originally posted by wib
    Nope. Only the lack of consent would make any sexual act rape in my opinion. Oral rape, anal rape, vaginal rape, ear rape, whatever.



    Rape is a sufficient condition for sodomy as I view it to be abnormal.
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    22 Mar '05 15:361 edit
    Originally posted by Alcra
    No - it is neither necessary nor sufficient.

    See above post...
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    22 Mar '05 15:46
    Originally posted by darvlay
    Rape is a sufficient condition for sodomy as I view it to be abnormal.
    I agree. And that means that so-called 'normal' copulation between a man and woman, when it is forced, is sodomy.

    Sodomy therefore is an intent, and not restricted to specific sexual acts.
  15. Standard memberDoctorScribbles
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    22 Mar '05 15:48
    Originally posted by eagles54

    Sodomy therefore is an intent, and not restricted to specific sexual acts.
    Interesting.

    Where are all the Christian big guns when we need them to weigh in on this? I believe the Bible offers quite a different notion of sodomy.
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